CAT DILR Questions | CAT Data Tabulation questions
This sections contains CAT Past year questions based on DATA TABULATION — Caselet Based Problems on Data Tables; Combination of Data Table with other graphs. CAT DI based on Tables | CAT Past Year DILR QuestionsComprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.
The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.
The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.
1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.
2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.
3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.
4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.
5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.
6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.
The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.
The following facts are known.
1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.
2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.
3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.
4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.
5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.
6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.
The following information is also known:
1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.
2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.
3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.
4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.
5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.
7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.
The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.
The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.
The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.
The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.
The following additional facts are known.
1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.
2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.
3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.
4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.
5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.
Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.
The following information is also known.
1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.
Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.
The following information is also known.
1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.
Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.
The following information is also known.
1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.
Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.
The following information is also known.
1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.
Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.
The following information is also known.
1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.
2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.
3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.
1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.
1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.
1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.
1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.
The following information is also known.
1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).
2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.
3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.
4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.
The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.
The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.
Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.
The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.
(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.
(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.
The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.
The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.
Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.
The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.
(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.
(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.
The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.
The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.
Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.
The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.
(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.
(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.
The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.
The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.
Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.
The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.
(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.
(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.
The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.
The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.
Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.
The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.
(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.
(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.
There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.
On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.
The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.
There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.
On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.
The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.
There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.
On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.
The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.
There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.
On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.
The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.
There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.
On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.
Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.
The following additional information is known about that day.
1. All slots were full.
2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.
3. 50% of the applications were US applications.
4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.
5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.
One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.
The following additional facts are known.
- No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
- Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
- Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
- No one had any banana leftover.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.
One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.
The following additional facts are known.
- No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
- Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
- Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
- No one had any banana leftover.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.
One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.
The following additional facts are known.
- No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
- Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
- Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
- No one had any banana leftover.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.
One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.
The following additional facts are known.
- No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
- Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
- Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
- No one had any banana leftover.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.
The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.
For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar.
The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.
- If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
- Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
- Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
- Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
- Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
- Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.
Comprehension
Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.
For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.
Comprehension
Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.
For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.
Comprehension
Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.
For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.
Comprehension
Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.
For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.
The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.
If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.
If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.
The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
| English | Hindi | Mathematics | Science | Social Science | |
| Alva | 80 | 75 | 70 | 75 | 60 |
| Bithi | 90 | 80 | 55 | 85 | 85 |
| Carl | 75 | 80 | 90 | 100 | 90 |
| Deep | 70 | 90 | 100 | 90 | 80 |
| Esha | 80 | 85 | 95 | 60 | 55 |
| Foni | 83 | 72 | 78 | 88 | 83 |
The following facts are also known.
I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.
II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.
III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
The following additional information is known.
1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
The following additional information is known.
1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
The following additional information is known.
1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.
The following additional information is known.
1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018.
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018.
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.
In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.
The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
| Constituency | ||||
| A | B | C | D | |
| No. of candidates contesting | 10 | 12 | 5 | 8 |
| Total No. of valid votes polled | 5,00,000 | 3,25,000 | 6,00,030. | |
| No. of votes polled by the winning candidate. | 2,75,000 | 48,750 | ||
| No. of votes polled by the first runner up | 95,000 | 37,500. | ||
| No. of votes polled by the second runner up | 30,000. | |||
| % of valid votes polled by the third runner up | 10% | |||
The following additional facts are known:
1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.
2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000
3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
| Day | Cumulative orders booked | Orders delivered on day | Cumulative orders lost |
| 13th | 219 | 11 | 91 |
| 14th | 249 | 27 | 92 |
| 15th | 277 | 23 | 94 |
| 16th | 302 | 11 | 106 |
| 17th | 327 | 21 | 118 |
| 18th | 332 | 13 | 120 |
| 19th | 337 | 14 | 129 |
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
| Day | Cumulative orders booked | Orders delivered on day | Cumulative orders lost |
| 13th | 219 | 11 | 91 |
| 14th | 249 | 27 | 92 |
| 15th | 277 | 23 | 94 |
| 16th | 302 | 11 | 106 |
| 17th | 327 | 21 | 118 |
| 18th | 332 | 13 | 120 |
| 19th | 337 | 14 | 129 |
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
| Day | Cumulative orders booked | Orders delivered on day | Cumulative orders lost |
| 13th | 219 | 11 | 91 |
| 14th | 249 | 27 | 92 |
| 15th | 277 | 23 | 94 |
| 16th | 302 | 11 | 106 |
| 17th | 327 | 21 | 118 |
| 18th | 332 | 13 | 120 |
| 19th | 337 | 14 | 129 |
CAT/2020.3(DILR)
Question. 78
The delivery ratio for a given day is defined as the ratio of the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the next day to the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the second day after booking. On which of the following days, was the delivery ratio the highest?
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.
The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.
| Day | Cumulative orders booked | Orders delivered on day | Cumulative orders lost |
| 13th | 219 | 11 | 91 |
| 14th | 249 | 27 | 92 |
| 15th | 277 | 23 | 94 |
| 16th | 302 | 11 | 106 |
| 17th | 327 | 21 | 118 |
| 18th | 332 | 13 | 120 |
| 19th | 337 | 14 | 129 |
CAT/2020.3(DILR)
Question. 79
The average time taken to deliver orders booked on a particular day is computed as follows. Let the number of orders delivered the next day be x and the number of orders delivered the day after be y. Then the average time to deliver order is (x+2y)/(x+y). On which of the following days was the average time taken to deliver orders booked the least?
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing
The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing
The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing
The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing
The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.
The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.
The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.
The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.
Comprehension
Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.
The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.
Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:
Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:
1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.
Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:
Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:
1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.
Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:
Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:
1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.
Comprehension
Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.
Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:
Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:
1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.
Comprehension
An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.
Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:
Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):
It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.
Comprehension
An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.
Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:
Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):
It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.
Comprehension
An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.
Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:
Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):
It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.
Comprehension
An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.
Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:
Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):
It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.
Comprehension
Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.
Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.
Comprehension
Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.
Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.
Comprehension
Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.
Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.
Comprehension
Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.
Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.
Comprehension
Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.
Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.
The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:
Comprehension
Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.
Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.
The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:
Comprehension
Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.
Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.
The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:
Comprehension
Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.
Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.
The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:
CAT/2017.1(DILR)
Question. 107
Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?
Comprehension
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
Comprehension
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
Comprehension
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
CAT/2017.1(DILR)
Question. 110
In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?
Comprehension
A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).
The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:
It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.
CAT/2017.1(DILR)
Question. 111
In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
CAT/2017.2(DILR)
Question. 115
Later, the college imposed a condition that if after the change of electives, the enrolment in any elective (other than E7) dropped to less than 20 students, all the students who had left that course will be required to re-enrol for that elective.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of electives in decreasing order of their final enrolments?
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.
Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.
Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.
Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.
Comprehension
Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.
Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.
Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.
CAT/2017.2(DILR)
Question. 119
Suppose that a T-NC pizza cost as much as a D-NC pizza, but of the price of a D-EC pizza. A D-EC pizza costs Rs. 50 more than a T-EC pizza, and the latter costs Rs. 500. If 25% of the Normal Cheese pizzas delivered to Party 1 were of Deep Dish variety, what was the total bill for Party 1?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college
Comprehension
Directions for Questions:
Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions:
Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions:
Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions:
Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.
Stage-I:
• One team won all the three matches.
• Two teams lost all the matches.
• D lost to A but won against C and F.
• E lost to B but won against C and F.
• B lost at least one match.
• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.
Stage-II:
• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.
• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.
• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.
CAT/2007(DILR)
Question. 130
The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
CAT/2007(DILR)
Question. 131
A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
CAT/2007(DILR)
Question. 133
Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? (It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India).
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.
The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:
A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
CAT/2007(DILR)
Question. 136
The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:
A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.
Comprehension
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Comprehension
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Comprehension
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Comprehension
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Comprehension
Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:
In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)
Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year
Comprehension
Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below
Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :
Comprehension
Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below
Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :
Comprehension
Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below
Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :
Comprehension
Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below
Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below
A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.
Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.
Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.
Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Comprehension
Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.
The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :
In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.
Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are
(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.
(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.
(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
CAT/2003(DILR)
Question. 161
Statement A : In 2002 the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males
Statement B: In 2002 among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
An industry comprises four firms ( A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales .
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
An industry comprises four firms ( A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales .
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.
CAT/2003(DILR)
Question. 181
The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
CAT/2003(DILR)
Question. 184
Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kgs) consumes 100 kgs of limestone and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25%, and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (% of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
CAT/2003(DILR)
Question. 185
Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (% of selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:
CAT/2003(DILR)
Question. 188
Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements in NOT correct?
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of the table.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of the table.
CAT/2002(DILR)
Question. 192
The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of the table.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operations in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum level of efficiency.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operations in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum level of efficiency.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operations in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum level of efficiency.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operations in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum level of efficiency.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes : MMedium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes : MMedium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes : MMedium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes : MMedium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions : Refer the information given below and answer the questions that follow :
Taking a field (say A), year X is a said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from field A in year X is greater than that in year Y. Taking two years, 1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B,
(a) A is said to dominate over B, if A ≥ B in one year and A>B in the other
(b) Year 1 is said to dominate over year 2, if A1 ≥ A2, B1 ≥ B2 There should be strict inequality in atleast one year.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions : Refer the information given below and answer the questions that follow :
Taking a field (say A), year X is a said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from field A in year X is greater than that in year Y. Taking two years, 1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B,
(a) A is said to dominate over B, if A ≥ B in one year and A>B in the other
(b) Year 1 is said to dominate over year 2, if A1 ≥ A2, B1 ≥ B2 There should be strict inequality in atleast one year.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
CAT/2000(DILR)
Question. 236
If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry, which corresponds to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much , did the government invest (in Rs. Million )in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint sector? (1 US$ - Rs . 45)
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.
All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.
CAT/2000(DILR)
Question. 237
Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors Japan, each having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from the venture due to losses occurring from labour problems. How much money will be disinvested ? (Refer to previous question, if required)
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.
i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.
i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.
i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.
i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.
i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below
The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table given below
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: For these questions, assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion. Interest is charged @10% per annum.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table given below
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: For these questions, assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion. Interest is charged @10% per annum.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table given below
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: For these questions, assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion. Interest is charged @10% per annum.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories, Urban (25%), Domestic (20%), Industrial (40%) and Rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was 7875 Megawatts.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories, Urban (25%), Domestic (20%), Industrial (40%) and Rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was 7875 Megawatts.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories, Urban (25%), Domestic (20%), Industrial (40%) and Rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was 7875 Megawatts.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below :
ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The Consumer Price Index for 1970 is to be taken as 105 and the Indices for the subsequent years are to be corrected accordingly.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the tables and information given below.
CAT/1996(DILR)
Question. 275
Due to overrun in “Design”, the Design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4 and 5 . The number of people working on Design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month.(Due to improvement in “Coding” technique, this stage was completed in months 6 - 8 only )
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the tables and information given below.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :
1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :
1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :
1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :
1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.
A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :
1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.
2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and
3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.
Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
1. In 1984-85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
2. In 1985-86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
3. Exports of food in 1985-86 exceeds the 1984-85 figure by Rs. 1006 crore.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
1. In 1984-85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
2. In 1985-86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
3. Exports of food in 1985-86 exceeds the 1984-85 figure by Rs. 1006 crore.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
1. In 1984-85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
2. In 1985-86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
3. Exports of food in 1985-86 exceeds the 1984-85 figure by Rs. 1006 crore.
Comprehension
Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below
1. In 1984-85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.
2. In 1985-86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.
3. Exports of food in 1985-86 exceeds the 1984-85 figure by Rs. 1006 crore.
