Comprehension. 1

Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.
  
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.

Question. 1

Suppose one of the lab assistants accidentally mixed two patients' blood samples before they were distributed to the vials. Which of the following correctly represents the set of all possible numbers of positive test results out of the eight vials?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following combinations of test results is NOT possible?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Suppose vial A tests positive and vials D and G test negative. Which of the following vials should we test next to identify the patient with the disease?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Suppose vial C tests positive and vials A, E and H test negative. Which patient has the disease?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 2

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

 

Question. 1

The average time taken to deliver orders booked on a particular day is computed as follows. Let the number of orders delivered the next day be x and the number of orders delivered the day after be y. Then the average time to deliver order is (x+2y)/(x+y). On which of the following days was the average time taken to deliver orders booked the least?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The delivery ratio for a given day is defined as the ratio of the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the next day to the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the second day after booking. On which of the following days, was the delivery ratio the highest?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 3

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

 

Question. 1

On which of the following days was the number of orders booked the highest?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Among the following days, the largest fraction of orders booked on which day was lost?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 4

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
 

  Constituency
  A B C D
No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8
Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030  
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate 2,75,000 48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up 95,000     37,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up       30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up       10%
        The following additional facts are known:

 

        1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.

 

    3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

Question. 1

For all the four constituencies taken together, what was the approximate number of votes polled by all the candidates who lost their security deposit expressed as a percentage of the total valid votes from these four constituencies?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The winning margin of a constituency is defined as the difference of votes polled by the winner and that of the first runner up. Which of the following CANNOT be the list of constituencies, in increasing order of winning margin?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 5

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.
 

  Constituency
  A B C D
No. of candidates contesting 10 12 5 8
Total No. of valid votes polled 5,00,000 3,25,000 6,00,030  
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate 2,75,000 48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up 95,000     37,500
No. of votes polled by the second runner up       30,000
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up       10%
        The following additional facts are known:

 

        1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A. 2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000.

 

    3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

Question. 1

What was the number of valid votes polled in constituency D?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What BEST can be concluded about the number of votes polled by the winning candidate in constituency C?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many candidates who contested in constituency B lost their security deposit?

 
 

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Question. 4

What is the percentage of votes polled in total by all the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for constituency A?

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Comprehension. 6

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.



The following additional information is known.
1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.    
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

Question. 1

What was the total sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in 2019 for the chain of departmental stores?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Among all the 12 departments (i.e., the 3 departments in each of the 4 cities), what was the maximum percentage increase in sales amount from 2018 to 2019?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What was the increase in sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in the Apparel department of Mumbai from 2018 to 2019?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In HomeDecor departments of which cities were the sales amounts the highest in 2018 and 2019, respectively?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 7

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

 

      The following facts are also known.



      I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

 

      II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

 

    Ill. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

Question. 1

For how many students can we be definite about which examinations they missed?

 
 

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Question. 2

How many out of these six students missed exactly one examination?

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Question. 3

What BEST can be concluded about the students who missed the Science examination?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which students did not appear for the English examination?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Who among the following did not appear for the Mathematics examination?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 8

Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.

The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.

 

Question. 1

Which players scored points in the last round?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which player scored points in maximum number of rounds?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which three players were in the last three positions after Round 4?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What were the scores of Chen, David, and Eric respectively after Round 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 9

Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing

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The following facts are also known.
1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

Question. 1

What was Tanzi's score in Round 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What was Zeneca's total score?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What was the highest total score?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 10

Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

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Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

Question. 1

If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, when did Balaram enter the venue?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

When did Erina reach the venue?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Who else was in Room 102 when Ganeshan entered?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What best can be said about the room to which Divya was allotted?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 11

An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

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Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

Question. 1

How many colleges have overall scores between 31 and 40, both inclusive?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the highest overall score among the eight colleges? [

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Question. 3

How many colleges receive the accreditation of AAA? 

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Question. 4

What is the weight of the faculty quality parameter?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 12

A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.

Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:

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Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:
1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.

Question. 1

If all the candidates scored different marks in WE then what is the maximum marks that Harini could have scored in WE? 

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Question. 2

If all the candidates except Ajay and Danish had different marks in DI, and Bala's composite score was less than Chetna's composite score, then what is the maximum marks that Bala could have scored in DI?

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Question. 3

Which of the following statements MUST be FALSE?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the following statements MUST be true?

1.Jatin's composite score was more than that of Danish.
2.Indu scored less than Chetna in DI.
3.Jatin scored more than Indu in GA.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 13

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.

Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.

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Question. 1

Suppose that a T-NC pizza cost as much as a D-NC pizza, but of the price of a D-EC pizza. A D-EC pizza costs Rs. 50 more than a T-EC pizza, and the latter costs Rs. 500. If 25% of the Normal Cheese pizzas delivered to Party 1 were of Deep Dish variety, what was the total bill for Party 1?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

For Party 2, if 50% of the Normal Cheese pizzas were of Thin Crust variety, what was the difference between the numbers of TEC and D-EC pizzas to be delivered to Party 2?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many Normal Cheese pizzas were required to be delivered to Party 1?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many Thin Crust pizzas were to be delivered to Party 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 14

There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Data Interpretation: Many Graphs

Question. 1

Later, the college imposed a condition that if after the change of electives, the enrolment in any elective (other than E7) dropped to less than 20 students, all the students who had left that course will be required to re-enrol for that elective.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of electives in decreasing order of their final enrolments?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

After the change process, which course among E1 to E6 had the largest change in its enrolment as a percentage of its original enrolment?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

After the change process, which of the following is the correct sequence of number of students in the six electives E1 to E6?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many elective courses among E1 to E6 had a decrease in their enrolments after the change process?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 15

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

Question. 1

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 16

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

Question. 1

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Among the kids in W whose mothers had completed primary education, how many were not in school?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 17

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

Question. 1

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier.
At what time is the order placed by client 2 completely served?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Assume that only one client’s order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while previous order is being prepared.
At what time is the order placed by client 3 completely served?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Assume that only one client’s order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while previous order is being prepared.
At what time is the order placed by client 1 completely served?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 18

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The total electricity production of five thermal power plants in India in year 2009-10 is given in the table below. Capacity utilization for any power plant is the percentage of maximum capacity, of that power plant, which is used for power production.

Maximum capacity (100%) = Capacity utilization (In %) + Unutilized production (In %)

Total cost of production = Units Produced (in KW) × Production Cost (in Rs. / KW units)

Total Revenue = Units Sold (in KW) × Selling price (in Rs. / KW units)

Profitability = [(Revenue - Cost )/ Cost] ×100% 

Question. 1

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which power plant had the third highest profitability?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following represents the decreasing order of units sold by the given 5 power plants?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In the given year, if capacity of power plant B had 12.5% of the total power capacity of India, and thermal power capacity of India is 95% of its total power capacity. The total capacity of these 5 thermal power plants was what percentage of the total thermal power capacity of India?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 19

Seven companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G are engaged in production of two items I and II. The comparative data about production of these items by the seven companies is given in the following Graph and Table. Study them carefully to answer the questions that follow.

PERCENTAGE OF THE TOTAL PRODUCTION PRODUCED BY THE SEVEN COMPANIES

Cost of the total production (both items together) by seven companies = ` 25 crores

RATIO OF PRODUCTION BETWEEN ITEMS I AND II AND THE PERCENT PROFIT EARNED FOR THE TWO ITEMS

 

 

Question. 1

If the GDP (in Euros) of Finland was 50% more than that of Italy, then by what percent was the Fiscaldeficit (in Euros) of Italy more/less than that of Finland in FY 2011- 12?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The countries with the Long-term interest rate less than 4% per annum, Debt to GDP ratio less than 60% and Fiscal-deficit not more than 4.6% were given a AAA rating. The number of countries rated AAA among the fourteen in FY 2011-12 was

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the Fiscal-deficit of France was x Euros, which was 50% more than that of Belgium, then what was the Debt (in Euros) of Belgium in FY 2011-12?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the total of the cost of production of item I by company A and the cost of production of item II by company B?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

The cost of production of both items together by company E is equal to the total cost of production of both items together by which of the two companies?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

What is the ratio of the cost of production of item I by company A to the cost of production of item I by company D?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 7

What is the total profit earned by company G for items I and II together?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 8

Cost of production of item I by company F is what percent of the cost of production of item II by company D?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 20

Given below are data points on the India economy from 2005 - 2010:

Per capita GDP is arrived by dividing GDP by population.

Question. 1

What was the approximate number of unemployed persons in 2006

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Read the statements given below:

1. Exports were more than imports in 2006

2. Imports were more than exports in 2009

3. Export increased at faster rate than imports during period 2005 to 2010 Which of the statements is necessarily true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the ratio of the current account balance in 2010 to current account balance 2005?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 21

In a society, the newspapers of only three languages – Marathi, Gujarati and Hindi – are distributed. Each family residing in the society reads newspapers of at least one of the three languages. The total number of families reading newspapers of exactly one language can be divided into three types – only Marathi, only Gujarati and only Hindi. These three numbers are in A.P., in no particular order. Similarly, the three types of families reading newspapers of exactly two languages are also in A.P. The number of families reading newspapers of all the three languages is onetenth of the number of families reading only Gujarati newspapers, which in turn is two-third of the number of families reading only Hindi newspapers. The number of families reading both Marathi and Gujarati newspapers is 15, whereas the number of families reading both Gujarati and Hindi newspapers is 19. The number of families reading Hindi newspapers is 70, which is more than the number of families reading Marathi newspapers.

Question. 1

What is the number of families reading both Marathi and Hindi newspapers?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the total number of families in the society?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 22

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

There are 100 employees in an organization across five departments. The following table gives the department-wise distribution of average age, average basic pay and allowances. The gross pay of an employee is the sum of his/her basic pay and allowances.

There are limited numbers of employees considered for transfer/promotion across departments. Whenever a person is transferred/ promoted from a department of lower average age to a department of higher average age, he/she will get an additional allowance of 10% of basic pay over and above his/her current allowance. There will not be any change in pay structure if a person is transferred/ promoted from a department with higher average age to a department with lower average age.

Questions below are independent of each other.

Question. 1

If two employees (each with a basic pay of Rs. 6000) are transferred from Maintenance department to HR department and one person (with a basic pay of Rs. 8000) was transferred from Marketing department to HR department, what will be the percentage change in average basic pay of HR department?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

There was a mutual transfer of an employee between Marketing and Finance departments and transfer of one employee from Marketing to HR. As a result, the average age of Finance department increased by one year and that of Marketing department remained the same. What is the new average age of HR department?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the approximate percentage change in the average gross pay of the HR department due to transfer of a 40-year old person with basic pay of Rs. 8000 from the Marketing department?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 23

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

A low–cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

Question. 1

If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 24

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Table shows the comparative costs, in US’Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below :

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

Question. 1

Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? It costs 7500 Bahts for one–way travel between Thailand and India.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The rupee value increases to Rs. 35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 25

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

The following table shows the break–up of actual costs incurred by a company in last five years (year 2002 to year 2006) to produce a particular product:

The production capacity of the company is 2000 units. The selling price for the year 2006 was Rs. 125 per unit. Some costs change almost in direct proportion to the change in volume of production, while others do not follow any obvious pattern of change with respect to the volume of production and hence are considered fixed. Using the information provided for the year 2006 as the basis for projecting the figures for the year 2007, answer the following questions :

Question. 1

If the company reduces the price by 5%, it can produce and sell as many units as it desires. How many units the company should produce to maximize its profit?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Given that the company cannot sell more than 1700 units, and it will have to reduce the price by Rs.5 for all units, if it wants to sell more than 1400 units, what is the maximum profit, in rupees, that the company can earn?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the minimum number of units that the company needs to produce and sell to avoid any loss?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the approximate cost per unit in rupees, if the company produces and sells 1400 units in the year 2007?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 26

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan’s score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note : B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

Question. 1

Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his/ her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group, then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 27

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year

Question. 1

Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice ,cultivation)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of I population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 28

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.

Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.

(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.

(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

Question. 1

In Strategy, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtain by

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In Operation, Tara could have received the same grade as

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 29

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

Question. 1

Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 30

Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below

Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :

Question. 1

Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh’s homepage in the three days?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

To which country does University 5 belong?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

University 1 can belong to

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 31

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

Question. 1

The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 32

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Question. 1

Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overll ranked school whose a) annual tution fee does not exceed $ 23, 000 and b) median starting salary is at least $ 70, 000. Which school will she select?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In terms of starting salary and tution fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower annual tution fee) than Dartmouth College?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 33

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

An industry comprises four firms ( A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales .

Question. 1

If Firm A acquires Firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales ) will they corner together

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which firm has the highest profitability

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 34

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

Question. 1

What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm. and do not weigh more than 48 kg?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 35

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

 

Question. 1

Statement A : The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse than for females in 2003

Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better in 2002 than in 2003

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Statement A : In 2002 the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males

Statement B: In 2002 among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002 to 2003

Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among females in 2003.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 36

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Question. 1

Among the states which have a sex ratio exceeding 1000 in 1901, the sharpest decline over the period 1901-2001 was registered in the state of

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The two states which achieved the largest increases in sex ratio over the period 1901-2001 are

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements in NOT correct?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 37

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.

Question. 1

Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (% of selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kgs) consumes 100 kgs of limestone and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25%, and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (% of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 38

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.

Question. 1

At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped in the long jump event?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the least Daley Thompson must get in Score-2 that ensures him a bronze medal?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 39

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

Question. 1

In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower then every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 40

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.

Question. 1

In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 41

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The table below gives information about four different crops, their different quality categories and the regions where they are cultivated. Based on the information given in the table answer the questions below.

Question. 1

How many low quality Crop-1 producing regions are either high quality Crop-4 producing regions or medium quality Crop-3 producing regions?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many regions produce medium qualities of Crop-1 or Crop-2 and also produce low quality of Crop-3 or Crop 4

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 42

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

There are 6 refineries, 7 depots and 9 districts. The refineries are BB, BC, BD, BE, BF and BG. The depots are AA, AB, AC, AD, AE, AF and AG. The districts are AAA, AAB, AAC, AAD, AAE, AAF, AAG, AAH ad AAI. Table A gives the cost of transporting one unit from refinery to depot. Table B gives the cost of transporting one unit from depot to a district.

Question. 1

The largest cost of sending petrol from any refinery to any district is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many possible ways are there for sending petrol from any refinery to any district?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the least cost of sending petrol from refinery BB to district AAA?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the least cost of sending one unit from refinery BB to any district?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to the district AAB?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

What is the least cost of sending one unit from any refinery to any district?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 43

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following table shows the revenue and expenses in millions of Euros (European currency) associated with REPSOL YPF company’s oil and gas producing activities in operations in different parts of the world for the years 1998-2000.

Question. 1

Of the following statements, which one is not true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Efficiency is defined as the ratio of revenue to expenses, which operation was the least efficient in the year 2000?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In the year 2000, which among the following countries had the best profitability?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If profitability is defined as the ratio of net income after taxes and charges to expenses, which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Ignoring the loss making operations of the company in 1998, for how many operations was the percentage increase in net income before taxes and charges higher than the average from 1998 to 1999?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

How many operations registered a sustained yearly increase in income before taxes and charges from 1998 to 2000?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 7

How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East, ....) of the company witnessed more than 200% increase in revenue from the year 1999 to 2000?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 8

How many operations (Spain, North Africa and Middle East, ....) of the company accounted for less than 5% of the total revenue earned in the year 1999?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 44

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

One of the functions of the Reserve Bank of India is to mobilize funds for the Government of India by issuing securities. The following table shows details of funds mobilized during the period July 2002 - July 2003. Notice that on each date there were two rounds of issues, each with a different maturity.

Question. 1

How many times was the issue of securities subscribed, i.e., how often did the total amount mobilized fall short of the amount notified?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 45

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The following table gives details regarding the total earnings of 15 employees and the number of days they have worked on complex, medium and simple operations in the month of June 2002. Even though the employees might have worked on an operation, they would be eligible for earnings only if they have minimum level of efficiency.

Question. 1

Among the employees who were engaged in complex and medium operations, the number of employees whose average earning per day in complex operations is more than average earning per day in medium operations is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The employee number of the person who has earned the maximum earnings per day in medium operation is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The number of employees who have earned more than 600 rupees and having more than 80% attendance (there are 25 regular working days in June 2002; some might be coming on overtime too) is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The number of employees who have earned more than 50 rupees per day in complex operations is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 46

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The following table provides data on the different countries and location of their capitals. (the data may not match the actual Latitude, Longitudes) Answer the following questions on the basis of the table.

Question. 1

The ratio of the number of countries whose name starts with vowels and located in the southern hemisphere, to the number of countries, the name of whose capital cities starts with a vowel in the table above is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The number of cities whose names begin with a consonant and are in the Northern Hemisphere in the table

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What percentage of cities located within 10°E and 40°E (10-degree East and 40 degree East) lie in the Southern Hemisphere?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 47

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Question. 1

How many international airports not located in the USA handle more than 30 million passengers?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Of the five busiest airports, roughly what percentage of passengers is handled by Heathrow airport?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United States of America?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many international airports of type ‘A’ account for more than 40 million passengers?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 48

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is a table describing garments manufactured based upon the colour and size for each lay. There are four sizes : MMedium, L-Large, XL-Extra Large and XXL-Extra-Extra Large. There are three colours: Yellow, Red and White.

Question. 1

How many varieties of fabrics, which exceed the order, have been produced?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many lays are used to produce Extra-Extra Large Yellow or Extra-Extra Large White fabrics?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many lays are used to produce Extra- Extra Large fabrics?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many lays are used to produce yellow coloured fabrics?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 49

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.

All figures in the table are in percent of the total for the corresponding column.

 

Question. 1

Which of the following statement is true

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Maruti Udyog Ltd. is a joint project of the Indian Government and Suzuki Motors Japan, each having equal stake. One fine day, the Indian government decides to disinvest from the venture due to losses occurring from labour problems. How much money will be disinvested ? (Refer to previous question, if required)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the government has a fixed capital of $200 million in the Iron & Steel industry, which corresponds to 20.012% of its total investment as fixed capital, then how much , did the government invest (in Rs. Million )in Maruti Udyog Ltd. which forms 25% of the investment in the joint sector? (1 US$ - Rs . 45)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If the variable cost is proportional to the number of employees and the production per employee. then for which of the following is the production highest?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Which of the following sectors has the maximum fixed capital invested per factory?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

If the total work force was 76 million whereas the total value added was 225 million, then which of the following had the maximum value addition per worker?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 50

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.

ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions : Refer the information given below and answer the questions that follow :

Taking a field (say A), year X is a said to dominate over year Y if the revenues from field A in year X is greater than that in year Y. Taking two years, 1 and 2, into consideration, for two fields A and B,

(a) A is said to dominate over B, if A ≥ B in one year and A>B in the other

(b) Year 1 is said to dominate over year 2, if A1 ≥ A2,  B1 ≥ B2 There should be strict inequality in atleast one year.

Question. 1

Taking Peripherals, Exports and Training together which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 51

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The following table gives the break-up of the revenues earned by the company Soft-Soft for five different years. Figures are in Rs. Crores.

Question. 1

If in 99-00 total revenue decrease by five percent over previous year and software revenue decreases to 2437 crores what is the approximate percentage decrease in rest of the heads considering uniform decrease

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In which of the following years the total hardware revenue is more than 50% of that of the software revenue in the same year?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In how many years the total revenue of training and maintenance is less than ten percent of the total revenues?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

In which year hardware exports has been between 35-40% of total?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 52

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

BT group of water facility and sanitation for different countries conducted a survey. The following table gives (in percentage), water and sanitation facilities available to the people in different countries.

i. A > B or A dominates B when the total coverage of both water and sanitation facilities of A are individually more than that of B. Or B<A that is, B is dominated by A if the coverage of both water and sanitation facilities (total) of B are individually less than that of A.
ii. A country is listed on the ‘Coverage frontier’ if the country is not dominated by more than one country.
iii. A country is listed on the ‘Water Survey Report’ if the country has greater coverage in the water supply (total) than at least two other countries and it doesn’t have coverage of less than 80% in either region

Question. 1

China, Japan and India’s rural population percentage, in the ascending order will be registered as

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the water supply coverage in the rural region of Nepal goes up to 86% then which of the following is false

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The following countries are listed on the Water Supply Report

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which are the countries listed on the coverage Frontier?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 53

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.

Question. 1

How many times sweeter than sucrose is a mixture of glucose, sucrose and fructose in the ratio 1:2:3

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many grams of sucrose must be added to one gram of saccharin to make a mixture hundred times as sweet as glucose

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 54

Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table and information given below

The following table gives the quantity of Apples (in tons) arriving in the New Delhi market from various states in a particular year. The month in which demand was more than supply, the additional demand was met by the stock from cold storage.

Question. 1

Using data in previous question, if there were 250 trees per hectare then how many hectare of land was used?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the yield per tree was 40 kg then from how many trees were the apples supplied to Delhi (in million )?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In which of the following periods supply was greater than the demand?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which state supplied the highest percentage of Apples from the total Apples supplied ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Who supplied the maximum Apples?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

What was the maximum percentage of Apples supplied by any state in any of the months?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 55

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below :

ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The Consumer Price Index for 1970 is to be taken as 105 and the Indices for the subsequent years are to be corrected accordingly.

Question. 1

What is the value of loans in 1980 at 1983 prices?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

By roughly how many points do the Indices for the years 1983 and 1975 differ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 56

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below :

Question. 1

What is the simple annual rate of increase in the number of Agricultural loans from 1970 to 1983?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In which year was the number of loans per rural bank the least?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the value (in Rs. mm) of the Agricultural loans in 1983 at 1970 prices?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the following pairs of years showed the maximum increase in the number of loans?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

From the given data, the number of rural loans upto 1980 formed approximately what percent of those in 1983?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

In 1974, the Agricultural loans formed what percent of the Total loans?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 57

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.

ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: The UPSEB supplies power under four categories, Urban (25%), Domestic (20%), Industrial (40%) and Rural (15%). In 1994-95, the total power produced by the UPSEB was 7875 Megawatts.

Question. 1

Which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In the given two years, what is the total tariff paid by the Urban sector (in Rs. lakh)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If in 1994-95, there was a 10% decrease in the Domestic consumption of power as compared to that in 1991-92, what was the consumption of power in the rural sector in 1991-92?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 58

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following table gives the tariff (in paise per kilo-watt-hour) levied by the UPSEB in 1994-95, in the four sectors and the regions within them. The table also gives the percentage change in the tariff as compared to 1991-92.

Question. 1

What approximately was the average tariff in Region 3 in 1991-92?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the amount of power consumed by the various Regions in Sector 1 is the same, then, as compared to 1991-92, the net tariff in 1994-95 ...

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 59

Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table given below

ADDITIONAL Directions for Questions: For these questions, assume that the cost of the project is incurred in the year of completion. Interest is charged @10% per annum.

Question. 1

What approximately is the cost incurred (in Rs. crore) for projects completed by 2000?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the cost incurred (in Rs. crore) for projects completed in 1999?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the cost incurred (in Rs. crore) for projects completed in 1998?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 60

Directions for Questions : These questions are based on the table given below

Question. 1

Which of the following has the maximum number of rooms per crore of rupees?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following had the least cost per room?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 61

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The amount of money invested (in rupees crore ) in the core infrastructure areas of two districts, Chittoor and Khammam, in Andhra Pradesh, is as follows :

Question. 1

If the total investment in Khammam shows the same rate of increase in 1997, as it had shown from 1995 to 1996, what approximately would be the total investment in Khammam in 1997 (in Rs. crore?)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In Khammam district, the investment in which area in 1996 showed the highest percent increase over the investment made in that area in 1995?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The investment in Electricity and Thermal Energy in 1995 in these two districts formed what percent of the total investment made in that year ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Approximately how many times the total investment in Chittoor was the total investment in Khammam?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

By what percent was the total investment in the two districts more in 1996 as compared to that in 1995?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 62

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the tables and information given below.

Question. 1

What is the difference in the cost between the old and the new techniques?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which five consecutive months have the lowest average cost per man-month under the new technique?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Under the new technique, which stage of Software development is most expensive for Mulayam Software company?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

With reference to the above question, what is the cost incurred in the new “coding” stage ? (Under the new technique, 4 people work in the sixth month and 5 in the eighth)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Due to overrun in “Design”, the Design stage took 3 months, i.e. months 3, 4 and 5 . The number of people working on Design in the fifth month was 5. Calculate the percentage change in the cost incurred in the fifth month.(Due to improvement in “Coding” technique, this stage was completed in months 6 - 8 only )

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 63

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.

Question. 1

Which company out of the four companes mentioned above has the maximum unutilized capcity (in ‘000 tonnes)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What approximately is the total production capacity (in tonnes) for coffee in India?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What percent of the total market share (by Sales value) is controlled by “others”?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The highest price of coffee per kg is for

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

What is the maximum production capacity (in ‘000 tonnes ) of Lipton for coffee?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 64

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

The first table gives the percentage of students in the class of M.B.A who sought employment in the areas of Finance, Marketing and Software. The second table gives the average starting salaries of the students per month, in these areas.

Question. 1

The average annual rate at which the initial salary offered in Software, increases

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the average monthly salary offered to a management graduate in the year 1993?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the percent increase in the average salary of Finance from 1992 to 1996?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In 1994, students seeking jobs in finance earned Rs...................more than those opting for sofware (in lakhs)

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

The number of students who got jobs in finance is less than the number of students getting marketing jobs, in the five years, by

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 65

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

A company produces five types of shirts - A,B, C, D, E, - using cloth of three qualities - High, Medium and Low -, using dyes of three qualities - High, Medium, and Low, The following tables give, respectively :

1. The number of shirts (of each category ) produced, in thousands.

2. The percentage distribution of cloth quality in each type of shirt, and

3. The percentage distribution of dye quality in each type of shirt.

Note: Each shirt requires 1.5 metres of cloth.

Question. 1

What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high- quality cloth?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many metres of low- quality cloth is consumed?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the ratio of low quality type dye used for C-shirts to that used for D-shirts?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many metres of high quality cloth is consumed by A- shirts?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

What is the total requirement of cloth?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 66

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below

Question. 1

The city in which the minimum number of products increased their market shares in 1993-94 was

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The number of products which had 100% market share in four metropolitan cities is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The largest percentage drop in market shares is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The number of products which doubled their market shares in one or more cities is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

The market of which products did not decrease between 1993-94 in any city?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 67

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Ghosh Babu surveyed his companies and obtained the following data. Income tax is paid from Profit BeforeTax and the remaining amount is apportioned to Dividend and Retained Earnings. The Retained earnings were accumulated into Reserves. The reserves at the beginning of 1991 were Rs. 80 lakh.

Question. 1

Amount of the reserves (in Rs. Lakh) at the end of 1994 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In which year the profit before tax per rupee of sales was the highest ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In which year was the tax per rupee of profit before tax lowest ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In which year was the percentage addition to reserves over previous year reserves the highest ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

In which year was the sales per rupee of share capital highest ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 68

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table given below.

Question. 1

Which of the categories had either a consistent growth or a consistent decline in the period shown?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which category had the highest growth rate in the period?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the categories shows the lowest growth rate from 1975 to 1980?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the growth rate of sales of books at primary school level from 1975 to 1980?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 69

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

1. In 1984-85 value of exports of manufactured articles exceeds over the value of exports of raw materials by 100%.

2. In 1985-86 the ratio of % of exports of raw material to that of exports of manufactured articles is 3 : 4.

3. Exports of food in 1985-86 exceeds the 1984-85 figure by Rs. 1006 crore.

Question. 1

The change in value of exports of manufactured articles from 1984-85 to 1985-86 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Value of exports of raw material during 84-85 was how much percent less than that for 85-86?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

During 1984-85, how much more raw material than food was exported?

(a)