Comprehension. 1

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.
 
Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:
 
1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

 

Question. 1

In which of the following rounds, was Arun DEFINITELY the only player to bid Hi?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In how many rounds did Dipak gain exactly 1 point?

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Question. 3

In how many rounds did all four players make identical bids?

 
 

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Question. 4

In how many rounds did Bankim bid Lo?

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Question. 5

In how many rounds did Arun bid Hi?

 
 

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Question. 6

What were the bids by Arun, Bankim, Charu and Dipak, respectively in the first round?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 2

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

Question. 1

Which column had the highest number of trees?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Who got the plot with the smallest number of trees and how many trees did that plot have?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many pine trees did Chitra receive?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Which of the following is the correct sequence of trees received by Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti in that order?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

How many mango trees were there in total?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 1

If D is scheduled in the slot immediately before Q’s, then which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If E and Q are both scheduled in the same slot, then which of the following statements BEST describes the relationship between D, H, and T?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If D is scheduled in a slot later than Q's, then which of the following two statement(s) is(are) true?
(i) E and H are guided by T.
(ii) G is guided by Q.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 3

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department.
 
Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00 am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots.
 
The following additional facts are also known.
 
1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots.
2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R.
3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am.
4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am.
5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot.
6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots.
7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

Question. 1

Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Who all are NOT guiding any Economics students?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 4

Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8. There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4..

Question. 1

The number of slots for which the total amount in its three pouches strictly exceeds Rs. 10 is

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Question. 2

What is the number of slots for which the average amount (in rupees) of its three pouches is an integer?

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Question. 3

How many pouches contain exactly one coin?

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Question. 4

What is the total amount of money (in rupees) in the three pouches kept in the first column of the second row?

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Comprehension. 5

To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

 

Question. 1

The LPA of a state for a year is defined as the average rainfall in the preceding 10 years considering the period of June-August. For example, LPA in 2018 is the average rainfall during 2009-2018 and LPA in 2019 is the average rainfall during 2010-2019. It is also observed that the actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 is 20% more than the rainfall in 2009. The LPA of Gujarat in 2019 is closest to

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the average rainfall of all states that have actual rainfall of 600 mm or less in 2019 and have a negative deviation from LPA?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If a ‘Low Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 750 mm or less, then what is the median ‘deviation from LPA’ (as defined in the Y-axis of the figure) of ‘Low Monsoon States’?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If a ‘Heavy Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 900 mm or more, then approximately what percentage of ‘Heavy Monsoon States’ have a negative deviation from respective LPAs in 2019?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 6

The base exchange rate of a currency X with respect to a currency Y is the number of units of currency Y which is equivalent in value to one unit of currency X. Currency exchange outlets buy currency at buying exchange rates that are lower than base exchange rates, and sell currency at selling exchange rates that are higher than base exchange rates.


A currency exchange outlet uses the local currency L to buy and sell three international currencies A, B, and C, but does not exchange one international currency directly with another. The base exchange rates of A, B and C with respect to L are in the ratio 100:120:1. The buying exchange rates of each of A, B, and C with respect to L are 5% below the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange rates are 10% above their corresponding base exchange rates.

The following facts are known about the outlet on a particular day:
1. The amount of L used by the outlet to buy C equals the amount of L it received by selling C.
2. The amounts of L used by the outlet to buy A and B are in the ratio 5:3.
3. The amounts of L the outlet received from the sales of A and B are in the ratio 5:9.
4. The outlet received 88000 units of L by selling A during the day.
5. The outlet started the day with some amount of L, 2500 units of A, 4800 units of B, and 48000 units of C.
6. The outlet ended the day with some amount of L, 3300 units of A, 4800 units of B,and 51000 units of C.

Question. 1

What was the buying exchange rate of currency C with respect to currency L on that day?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What was the base exchange rate of currency B with respect to currency L on that day?

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Question. 3

How many units of currency C did the outlet sell on that day?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many units of currency A did the outlet buy on that day? 

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Comprehension. 7

Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

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The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The following facts are known:
1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

Question. 1

If the smallest box on the grid is equivalent to revenue of Rs.1 crore, then what approximately was the total revenue of Bravo in Rs. crore?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following is the correct sequence of numbers of products Bravo had in No-hope, Doubtful, Promising and Blockbuster categories respectively?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Considering all companies products, which product category had the highest revenue?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 8

There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

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In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

Question. 1

The complete list of brands whose profits went up in 2017 from 2016 is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The brand that had the highest profit in 2017 is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The brand that had the highest profit in 2016 is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The brand that had the highest revenue in 2016 is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 9

An ATM dispenses exactly Rs. 5000 per withdrawal using 100, 200 and 500 rupee notes. The ATM requires every customer to give her preference for one of the three denominations of notes. It then dispenses notes such that the number of notes of the customer’s preferred denomination exceeds the total number of notes of other denominations dispensed to her.

Question. 1

What is the number of 500 rupee notes required to serve 50 customers with 500 rupee notes as their preferences and another 50 customers with 100 rupee notes as their preferences, if the total number of notes to be dispensed is the smallest possible?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the maximum number of customers that the ATM can serve with a stock of fifty 500 rupee notes and a sufficient number of notes of other denominations, if all the customers are to be served with at most 20 notes per withdrawal?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the ATM could serve only 10 customers with a stock of fifty 500 rupee notes and a sufficient number of notes of other denominations, what is the maximum number of customers among these 10 who could have given 500 rupee notes as their preferences?

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Question. 4

In how many different ways can the ATM serve a customer who gives 500 rupee notes as her preference?

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Comprehension. 10

You are given an n×n square matrix to be filled with numerals so that no two adjacent cells have the same numeral. Two cells are called adjacent if they touch each other horizontally, vertically or diagonally. So a cell in one of the four corners has three cells adjacent to it, and a cell in the first or last row or column which is not in the corner has five cells adjacent to it. Any other cell has eight cells adjacent to it.

Question. 1

Suppose that all the cells adjacent to any particular cell must have different numerals. What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 5×5 square matrix?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Suppose you are allowed to make one mistake, that is, one pair of adjacent cells can have the same numeral. What is the minimum number of different numerals required to fill a 5×5 matrix?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 5×5 square matrix? 

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Question. 4

What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 3×3 square matrix? 

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Comprehension. 11

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1.The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2:1:1.
2.The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3.The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4.The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B.

Question. 1

If the number of satellites serving at least two among B, C, and S is 1200, which of the following MUST be FALSE?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If at least 100 of the 1600 satellites were serving O, what can be said about the number of satellites serving S?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the minimum possible number of satellites serving B exclusively?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What best can be said about the number of satellites serving C?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 12

Eight friends: Ajit, Byomkesh, Gargi, Jayanta, Kikira, Manik, Prodosh and Tapesh are going to Delhi from Kolkata by a flight operated by Cheap Air. In the flight, sitting is arranged in 30 rows, numbered 1 to 30, each consisting of 6 seats, marked by letters A to F from left to right, respectively. Seats A to C are to the left of the aisle (the passage running from the front of the aircraft to the back), and seats D to F are to the right of the aisle. Seats A and F are by the windows and referred to as Window seats, C and D are by the aisle and are referred to as Aisle seats while B and E are referred to as Middle seats. Seats marked by consecutive letters are called consecutive seats (or seats next to each other). A seat number is a combination of the row number, followed by the letter indicating the position in the row; e.g., 1A is the left window seat in the first row, while 12E is the right middle seat in the 12th row.

Cheap Air charges Rs. 1000 extra for any seats in Rows 1, 12 and 13 as those have extra legroom. For Rows 2-10, it charges Rs. 300 extra for Window seats and Rs. 500 extra for Aisle seats. For Rows 11 and 14 to 20, it charges Rs. 200 extra for Window seats and Rs. 400 extra for Aisle seats. All other seats are available at no extra charge.

The following are known:
1. The eight friends were seated in six different rows.
2. They occupied 3 Window seats, 4 Aisle seats and 1 Middle seat.
3. Seven of them had to pay extra amounts, totaling to Rs. 4600, for their choices of seat. One of them did not pay any additional amount for his/her choice of seat.
4. Jayanta, Ajit and Byomkesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but all of them paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero.
5. Gargi was sitting next to Kikira, and Manik was sitting next to Jayanta.
6. Prodosh and Tapesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but they paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero

Question. 1

Who among the following did not pay any extra amount for his/her choice of seat?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How much extra did Gargi pay for her choice of seat?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How much extra did Jayanta pay for his choice of seat?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

In which row was Manik sitting?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 13

In an 8 X 8 chessboard a queen placed anywhere can attack another piece if the piece is present in the same row, or in the same column or in any diagonal position in any possible 4 directions, provided there is no other piece in between in the path from the queen to that piece. The columns are labelled a to h (left to right) and the rows are numbered 1 to 8 (bottom to top). The position of a piece is given by the combination of column and row labels. For example, position c5 means that the piece is in cth column and 5th row.

Question. 1

Suppose the queen is the only piece on the board and it is at position d5. In how many positions can another piece be placed on the board such that it is safe from attack from the queen?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the other pieces are only at positions al, a3, b4, d7, h7 and h8, then from how many positions the queen cannot attack any of the pieces?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the other pieces are only at positions al, a3, b4, d7, h7 and h8, then which of the following positions of the queen results in the maximum number of pieces being under attack?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If the queen is at c5, and the other pieces at positions c2, gl, g3, g5 and a3, how many are under attack by the queen? There are no other pieces on the board.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 14

An old woman had the following assets:
(a) Rs. 70 lakh in bank deposits
(b) 1 house worth Rs. 50 lakh
(c) 3 flats, each worth Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Certain number of gold coins , each worth Rs. 1 lakh

She wanted to distribute her assets among her three children; Neeta, Seeta and Geeta. The house, any of the flats or any of the coins were not to be split. That is, the house went entirely to one child; a flat went to one child and similarly, a gold coin went to one child.

Among the three, Neeta received the least amount in bank deposits, while Geeta received the highest. The value of the assets was distributed equally among the children, as were the gold coins.

Question. 1

The value of the assets distributed among Neeta, Seeta and Geeta was in the ratio of 1:2:3, while the gold coins were distributed among them in the ratio of 2:3:4. One child got all three flats and she did not get the house. One child, other than Geeta, got Rs. 30 lakh in bank deposits. how much did Seeta get in bank deposits (in lakhs of rupees)?

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Question. 2

The value of the assets distributed among Neeta, Seeta and Geeta was in the ratio of 1:2:3, while the gold coins were distributed among them in the ratio of 2:3:4. One child got all three flats and she did not get the house. One child, other than Geeta, got Rs. 30 lakh in bank deposits. How many gold coins did the old woman have?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many flats did Neeta receive? 

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Question. 4

How much did Seeta receive in bank deposits (in lakhs of rupees)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 15

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.

For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:
1.No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
3.The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
4.Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

Question. 1

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also are at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, is more than 100, how many candidates had to sit for the separate test for BIE?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, then how many candidates were shortlisted for the AET for AIE? 

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Question. 3

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in CET?

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Question. 4

What best can be concluded about the number of candidates sitting for the separate test for BIE who were at or above the 90th percentile overall in CET?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 16

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.

The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

Question. 1

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.
If all the cars follow the police order, what is the minimum travel time (in minutes) from A to B? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.2

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.
How many cars would the police department order to take the A-M-N-B route so that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order while the other cars follow the order? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.

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Question. 3

If all the cars follow the police order, what is the difference in travel time (in minutes) between a car which takes the route A-N-B and a car that takes the route A-M-B?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many cars would be asked to take the route A-N-B, that is Akala-Nanur-Bakala route, by the police department?

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Comprehension. 17

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.

The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:

Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day

Question. 1

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:

1. Both cities are in G1
2. Between A and any city in G2
3. Between B and any city in G3
4. Between C and any city in G4

However, due to operational difficulties at A, it was later decided that the only flights that would operate at A would be those to and from B. Cities in G2 would have to be assigned to G3 or to G4.
What would be the maximum reduction in the number of direct flights as compared to the situation before the operational difficulties arose? 

 
 

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Question. 2

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:

1. Both cities are in G1
2. Between A and any city in G2
3. Between B and any city in G3
4. Between C and any city in G4

Then the minimum number of direct flights that satisfies the underlying principle of the airline is:

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Question. 3

Suppose three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is a city which is connected with every other city by direct flights each way, both in the morning as well as in the evening. The only direct flights which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs. Then the minimum number of direct flights that need to be scheduled so that the underlying principle of the airline to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If the underlying principle is to be satisfied in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be performed using only direct (non-stop) flights, then the minimum number of direct flights to be scheduled is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 18

answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

A team must be selected from ten probable – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. Of these, A, C, E and are forwards, B, G and H are point guards and D, F and I are defenders. Further, the following conditions need to be observed:

• The team must have at least one forward, one point guard and one defender.

• If the team includes J, it must also include F. • The team must include E or B, but not both.

• If the team includes G, it must also include F.

• The team must include exactly one among C, G and I.

• C and F cannot be members of the same team

• D and H cannot be members of the same team

• The team must include both A and D or neither of them.

There is no restriction on the number of members in the team.

Question. 1

What can be the size of the team that includes C?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Who cannot be included in a team of size 6?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What would be the size of the largest possible team?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What could be the size of the team that includes G?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 19

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

After facing yet another World Cup debacle, the Board of Cricket Control in India (BCCI) is in search of a new coach for the team. It shortlisted five persons – Anshuman, Buchanen, John, Whatmore and Chappel. Each of them is from a different country among Australia, India, Japan, Pakistan and Canada, not necessarily in that order. At present, each of them is coaching the team of a different country among Australia, Bangladesh, china, Wales and Bermuda, not necessarily in that order. The following details were also observed about their particulars:

(i) For any person, each of his three particulars – his name, the name of the country from which he is and the name of the country that he is coaching at present, starts with a different letter.

(ii) Whatmore is coaching Australia and John is from neither Australia nor Pakistan.

(iii) Buchanen is not coaching China and the person who is coaching Bermuda is from Canada.

(iv) Anshuman is neither from Canada nor from Pakistan and also the person from Pakistan is coaching Bangladesh.

Question. 1

The person from Japan is definitely not coaching?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Who is the person from Australia?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What more is from which country?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 20

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

From ISBT, buses ply on 6 different routes viz. 414, 413, 427, 966, 893 and 181 at an interval of 10 min, 10 min, 12 min, 15 min, 20 min and 30 min, not necessarily in that order, to four different destinations viz. Mehrauli, Badarpur, Uttam Nagar and Azadpur. There is at least one bus for each destination. Further information is also known:

i. Two buses to the same destination cannot start at the same time.

ii. If the timings of two buses plying different routes but heading towards the same destination clash, then the bus of the route number having the shorter time interval will skip this journey.

iii. Buses on two different routes ply between ISBT and Mehrauli.

iv. The difference between the time intervals of a route to Mehrauli and Uttam Nagar is equal to the difference between the time intervals of the two routes to Uttam Nagar.

v. Buses on a route to Mehrauli leaves after every 10 min.

vi. 414 leaves for Badarpur after every 30 min.

vii. Time intervals between two different routes heading towards the same destination cannot be equal.

viii. Buses on one of the routes to Uttam Nagar leave after every 15 min.

ix. Buses to any destination can leave from ISBT with an interval of at least one minute or an integral multiple of one minute

Question. 1

If condition (iii) is not there, then what can be the minimum difference between the time intervals between the buses plying to Uttam Nagar?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is necessarily TRUE?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

On a festival day, if frequency of all buses was increased by decreasing the time interval of all the routes by 5 min, then what can be the minimum time difference between any two buses plying to Mehrauli?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If 427 leaves to Mehrauli after every 10 min, then in a given hour a minimum of how many buses can ply on route 427?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 21

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a given season of F1 racing, 9 races are to be held. There are 8 teams with two drivers in each team and the points are awarded to the drivers in each race as per to the following table:

Two championships viz. ‘Driver’s Championship’ and ‘Constructor’s Championship’ take place simultaneously. ‘Driver’s Championship’ is given to the player who has the maximum number of points at the end of the season. ‘Constructor’s Championship’ is given to the team for which the sum of the points of two its drivers is the maximum. A driver is said to get the podium finish only when he is among the top 3 rankers in a race. After the first 6 races, the point standings of the 16 drivers is as follows:

 

Question. 1

If Schumacher ranked 9th in one of the first six races, then which of the following CANNOT be the points scored by him in any one of the first six races?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements CANNOT be true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Apart from the first six races, Alonso got the podium finish in the 7th race as well. However, he was not allowed to participate in the subsequent races due to mechanical failure. At the end of the season, if Schumacher won the ‘Driver’s Championship’, then which of the following could have been his lowest rank in any of the last three races?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If Alonso got the podium finish in each of the first 6 races, then what was the maximum number of races in which he had 2nd rank?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 22

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A group has to be selected from seven persons containing two women (Rehana and Kavya) and five men (Rohit, Rahul, Kamal, Nusarat and John). Rohit would not like to be in the group if Rahul is selected. Rahul and John want to be selected together in the group. Kavya would like to be in the group only if Kamal is also there. Kamal, if selected, would not like Nusarat in the group. Rohit would like to be in the group only if Nusarat is also there. Kamal insists that Rehana must be selected in case he is there in the group

Question. 1

If a group of five members has to be selected, then in how many ways is it possible such that Kamal is definitely a member of the group?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following is an acceptable combination of a group of four?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the following is an acceptable combination of a group of three?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 23

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Sixteen teams – A through P – participated in the Hockey World Cup,2013. The tournament was conducted in two stages. In the first stage, the teams were divided into two groups – teams A to H in group 1 and teams I to P in group 2. In the first stage, each team in a group played exactly one match against every other team in that group. At the end of the first stage, the top four teams from each group advanced to the second stage while the rest got eliminated. The second stage comprised three rounds – Quarterfinals, Semi-finals and Finals. A round involves one match for each team. The winner of a match in a round advanced to the next round, while the loser got eliminated. The team that remains undefeated in the second stage was declared the winner of the tournament. At the end of the first stage, top four teams in each group were determined on the basis of total number of matches won by individual teams; in case, two or more teams in a group were ended up with the same number of wins, ties were resolved by a series of complex tie-breaking rules to determine the top four positions. The teams qualifying for the second stage from group 1 were A, B, C and D and those from group 2 were I, J, K and L. No match in the tournament ended in a draw/tie.

Question. 1

The value of the total of number of matches won, in the first stage, by teams A, B, C and D together could not be more than

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Question. 2

How many of the following statements is/are true?

(i) Maximum number of teams which could have one win in the first stage was 

(ii) Maximum number of teams which could have three wins in the first stage was 12.

(iii) Number of teams which had exactly 2 wins in the second stage was 2.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In the tournament, if E and L won the same number of matches and L was the winner of the tournament, then what was the sum of the number of matches won by E and that by L?

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Comprehension. 24

Answer the questions on the basis of information given below. Volleyball is a sport played by two teams on a playing court divided by a net

The object of the game is to send the ball over the net in order to ground it on the opponent’s court, and to prevent the same effort by the opponent. The team has three hits for returning the ball. The rally continues until the ball is grounded on the playing court, goes “out” or a team fails to return it properly. In Volleyball, the team winning a rally scores a point (Rally Point System). There are six players on court in a volleyball team. Matches are played in five sets. The first four sets are played to 25 points, with the final set being played to 15 points. A team must win a set by at least two points. There is no ceiling, so a set continues until one of the teams gains a two-point advantage.

A match was played between Brazil and Russia in which-

(i) Only three sets finished with the minimum threshold points.

(ii) The final score of Russia was same in two of the sets in which it won one of the sets.

(iii) In one of the sets, the final score of Brazil was less than half of Russia.

(iv) The score of Brazil in one of the sets is same as the score of Russia in one of the other set. Both of them lost their respective sets with a different margin.

(v) The total score of five sets of Brazil and Russia were 108 and 116 respectively. Also, Brazil won 3 sets.

(vi) The maximum score by any team in the five sets was 30 and the minimum was 12. Russia scored 23 points in one of the sets.

(vii) There were only three sets in which a team won by exactly two-point advantage.

Question. 1

What was the score which was common with both the teams, and in which both won their respective sets?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

In how many sets, the score of Brazil was an even number?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What was the score of Russia in the fifth set?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What was the maximum difference by which a team won the set?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 25

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

There are 6 friends — Gurvinder, Surinder, Mahinder, Bhupinder, Harinder and Joginder. Their wives are — Sita, Rama, Dolly, Monica, Trisna and Kaveri (not in the same order as their husbands). Each of these 6 friends belong to exactly one out of Ambala, Jaipur, Guntur, Kapurthala, Noida and Jammu (not necessarily in order). Each of them plays exactly one of the games — cricket, football, volleyball, snooker, TT and badminton (again not necessarily in that order). Each of the friends is married to one lady only.

— Husbands of Dolly, Trisna or Kaveri do not play football or volleyball.

— The one who is from Guntur plays cricket.

— Joginder plays football and is from Jammu.

— Mahinder and Harinder are married to Sita and Monica respectively but are not from Guntur.

— The men from Jaipur and Kapurthala are TT and volleyball players respectively.

— Bhupinder is from Noida.

— Rama is married to the man from Jammu.

— Mahinder plays snooker.

Question. 1

Who is the wife of Surinder?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which game is being played by Bhupinder?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The person who plays Snooker belongs to which place?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Who is married to the man from Kapurthala?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 26

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of information given below.

A farmer has 60 hens in his poultry farm. Each of these 60 hens lays one egg per day. On each day out of the eggs laid, some of the eggs are found to be rotten and some of the eggs get broken. Only the eggs that are neither rotten nor broken are taken to the market for sale but due to some unavoidable reasons some eggs are not sold. The eggs that are not sold are brought back to the poultry farm. 

Additional Information Given:

I. Out of the eggs that are brought back on each day, 40% are rotten and 20% are broken the next morning (and they are always integers).

II. Out of the eggs that are brought back to the poultry farm on each day, the eggs that are neither broken nor rotten are taken along with the eggs that are laid by the hens on the next day to the market for sale.

III. On any particular day the number of eggs that are not sold is less than 20% of the number of eggs that are taken to be sold out of the eggs that are laid on each day.

IV.  Out of the eggs that are laid on each day, the number of eggs that are rotten is greater than 1 but less than 5 and the number of eggs that got broken is greater than 3 and less than 7. V.   Every week has five days and each week starts from day 1 and ends on day 5. Assume there are no eggs with the farmer at the beginning of day 1 of the given week.

Question. 1

If the number of eggs sold on any day of the week is maximum possible then what is the aggregate sum of the total number of eggs sold in the entire week?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What can be the maximum number of eggs (that are unbroken and not rotten) that were left unsold at the end of the fifth day?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the number of eggs that got rotten and broken is maximum possible in a particular week, then find the difference between the total number of eggs that got rotten and the total number of eggs that got broken across all the five days of the week.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Find the minimum possible aggregate number of eggs sold on day 4 and day 5.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 27

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A Cricket team of 11 players is to be formed from a group of 15 players—A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O. Among the players A, D, K, L, M, N and O are batsmen; B, C, E, F, G, and H are bowlers; I and J are wicketkeepers. It is also known that:

I. The team must have at least 5 batsmen and exactly 1 wicketkeeper.

II. H can be selected only if B is selected.

III. F can be selected only if both G and N are selected.

IV. If I is selected, then F is also selected.

V. K and M cannot be selected together for the team. The same is true for B and G.

Question. 1

If H is selected, then who among the following cannot be selected in the team?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If G is one of the bowlers in the team, then who will be the wicketkeeper?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In how many ways can the team be formed?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 28

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Eight persons are sitting at a rectangular table such that four persons are sitting along each of the longer sides of the table. Each person works in a different bank among PNB, SBI, HDFC, ICICI, CBI, BOB, BOI and Citi, and holds a different designation among IT Officer, Marketing Officer, Law Officer, Agricultural Officer, Rajbhasha Adhikari, Technical Officer, Finance Officer and HR Manager, not necessarily in the same order. It is also known that:

I. The Finance Officer, who works in BOI, is sitting to the immediate left of the HR Manager.

II. The Marketing Officer, who works in SBI, is sitting opposite the Technical Officer.

III. The Agricultural Officer, who works in ICICI, is sitting diagonally opposite the Rajbhasha Adhikari, who is sitting to the immediate left of the Technical Officer.

IV. The Law Officer, who works in HDFC, is sitting to the immediate left of the Marketing officer.

V. The persons who work in PNB and HDFC are sitting along the same side of the table.

VI. The Rajbhasha Adhikari, who works in CBI, is sitting at one of the extreme ends in his row.

Question. 1

The person who is sitting opposite the Law Officer works in

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

For how many persons can we definitely determine the banks in which they work?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Who is sitting to the immediate right of the Finance Officer?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 29

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of information given below.

Four teams—T1, T2, T3 and T4— participated in a tournament of ‘Bat and trap’, an English bat-and-ball pub game. In the tournament, each team played exactly one match with each of the other teams. The matches were played on six consecutive days of a week from Monday to Saturday. Two points were awarded to the winner of a match and no points to the loser. No match in the tournament resulted in a tie/draw. It is also known that: 

I. T1 won only one match in the tournament and it was played on Monday.

II. The match played on Thursday was won by T4.

III. T3 won against T2 on Tuesday.

IV. T2, T3 and T4 definitely did not play on Wednesday, Monday and Saturday respectively.

V. T2 and T3 ended up with the same number of points at the end of the tournament.

Question. 1

The match played on Friday was between

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

T3 lost its match against

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many points did T4 score in the tournament?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 30

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Five friends, viz. Ashok, Amit, Ajay, Akansh and Abhishek are living in five different cities named Kunnamangalam, Joka, Vastrapur, Banerghatta and Prabandhnagar, not necessarily in that order. Their salaries are 700000, 800000, 900000, 1100000, 1300000 (INR per annum), in no particular order. Further, the following information is given about them:

I. Akansh, who does not live in Banerghatta, earns a salary that is a prime number multiple of 100000.

II. Amit made a call to one of his four mentioned friends who lives in Prabandhnagar and earning a perfect square multiple of 100000 INR in salary.

III. Ajay’s salary is 100000 INR more than the average salary of Akansh and Ashok

IV. Amit lives in the city, which has the shortest name amongst the above cities.

Question. 1

If Amit and Ajay live in cities with names starting with consecutive alphabets, then who lives in Vastrapur?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Who stays in Prabandhnagar?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If Akansh lives in Vastrapur, then what is the average salary of the persons living in Banerghatta and Kunnamangalam?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 31

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Each of the six persons namely A, B, C, D, E and F took one ball from a box containing 300 balls of six different colours Blue, Black, Red, White, Green and Yellow. Also, the number of balls of each colour is the same. Following is the detail of three statements made by each of the persons. Exactly one of the statements made by each person is true and only one of the statements made about B is correct. Also, balls of two particular colours were not taken by any of the persons.

Question. 1

For how many of the mentioned persons, the exact colour of the balls taken by them can be determined?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the colour of the ball taken by C?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the colour of the ball taken by A?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 32

Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Eight teams participate in the Indian Soccer League (ISL) in which they play one another exactly once. The winner gets three points while the loser gets no points from a match. Both the teams get one point each if the match results in a draw. It is known that not more than 3 matches resulted in a draw in the tournament. The teams are ranked in the following manner before the tournament starts:

The new ranks of the eight teams would be decided based on their performance in the ISL, with the team scoring the maximum points ranked 1 and so on. If two or more teams score equal points at the end of the tournament, their final ranks would be decided based on the total number of goals scored in the tournament, with more goals giving a team better rank. An “upset” is said to have happened when a lower ranked team defeats a higher ranked team in a match.

Question. 1

If 27 matches in ISL resulted in upsets, then what is the maximum number of teams who could have retained their initial ranks?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Hobart Rockets retained Rank 3, then what is the maximum number of upsets that could have happened?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If Rajasthan Badshahs came in the top four teams after ISL, then what is the minimum number of upsets that must have happened?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 33

Directions for questions: Answer the questions on the basis of information given below.

IT School of Management is a management institute involved in teaching,training and research. Currently it has 37 faculty members. They are involved in three jobs: teaching, training and research. Each faculty member working with IT School of Management has to be involved in at least one of the three jobs mentioned above:

• A maximum number of faculty members are involved in training. Among them, a number of faculty members are having additional involvement in the research.

• The number of faculty members in research alone is double the number of faculty members involved in all the three jobs.

•. 17 faculty members are involved in teaching. The number of faculty members involved in teaching alone is less than the number of faculty members involved in research alone.

• The faculty members involved in the teaching are also involved in at least one more job.

Question. 1

Among Anil, Bibek, Charu, Debu and Eswar, Eswar is taller than Debu but not as fat as Debu. Charu is taller than Anil but shorter than Bibek. Anil is fatter than Debu but not as fat as Bibek. Eswar is thinner than Charu, who is thinner than Debu. Eswar is shorter than Anil. Who is the thinnest person?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Based on the information given above, the minimum number of faculty members involved in both training and teaching, but not in research is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

After sometime,the faculty members who were involved in all the three tasks were asked to withdraw from one task. As a result, one of the faculty members each opted out of teaching and research, while remaining ones involved in all the three tasks opted out of training. Which one of the following statements, then necessarily follows:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 34

Read the following information and answer the quetions that follow:

The cars at a dealership come with a choice of the following options : air-conditioning, a cassette deck, leather seats, power windows, a sunroof and tinted glass. None of the cars has any other optional equipment. The following conditions apply : If a car has leather seats, it also has a cassette deck. If a car has a cassette deck, it also has power windows; If a car has power windows, it also has a cassette deck. Cars with tinted glass have a sunroof, but no air-conditioning. Cars that have air-conditioning have, at most, two other options

Question. 1

If a car has exactly two options, which one of the following could they be?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If a car has power windows and a sunroof, how many different sets of options, at most, can the car have?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of options on a car?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If a car has both tinted glass and leather seats, what is the greatest number of additional options that the car could have?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 35

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

Question. 1

Which of the following is necessarily false?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 2

One day, two other traders, Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares of XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am, 11 am and 12 noon, and selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm. Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy of buying shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the shares for all the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the close of the day the following was observed:

(i) Abdul lost money in the transactions.

(ii) Both Dane and Emily made profits.

(iii) There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.

(iv) Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price.

Share price was at its highest at

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 3

On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 4

On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e., it is higher at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that day?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 5

Which one of the following statement is always true?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Comprehension. 36

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.

(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.

(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The houses are of different heights.

(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.

(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.

(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.

(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.

(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.

(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.

Question. 1

What is the colour of the tallest house?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 2

What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 3

Which is the second tallest house?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Comprehension. 37

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in Stage-I and two matches in Stage-II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage-I and Stage-II are as given below.

Stage-I:

* One team won all the three matches.

* Two teams lost all the matches.

* D lost to A but won against C and F.

* E lost to B but won against C and F.

* B lost at least one match.

* F did not play against the top team of Stage-I

Stage-II:

* The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.

* Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.

* One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.

Question. 1

The only team(s) that won both the matches in Stage-II is (are):

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are):

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 38

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut off marks as specified by the college.

Question. 1

Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate marks obtained by him?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by her?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a section?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 39

Directions for Questions: Five horses, Red, White, Grey, Black and Spotted participated in a race. As per the rules of the race, the persons betting on the winning horse get four times the bet amount and those betting on the horse that came in second get thrice the bet amount. Moreover, the bet amount is returned to those betting on the horse that came in third, and the rest lose the bet amount. Raju bets Rs. 3000, Rs. 2000, Rs. 1000 on Red, White and Black horses respectively and ends up with no profit and no loss

Question. 1

Suppose, in addition, it is known that Grey came in fourth. Then which of the following cannot be true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following cannot be true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 40

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

A health–drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P:50, Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

Question. 1

In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest per unit cost?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 41

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the Secondary Section and rest equally divided between Class 11 and 12.

Question. 1

In the Secondary Section, 50% of the students are vegetarian males. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

In Class 12, twenty five per cent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between the number of female vegetarians and male non-vegetarians?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the percentage of vegetarian students in Class 12?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 42

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

• A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

• A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

• If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

• If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

• L and N cannot be members of the same team.

• L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

Question. 1

What would be the size of the largest possible team?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 2

Who can be a member of a team of size 5?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 3

Who cannot be a member of a team of size 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 4

What could be the size of a team that includes K?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 5

In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes N?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Comprehension. 43

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y + 1. Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

• On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

• At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

• On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group’s average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

• No other paper was written during the conference.

Question. 1

How many participants in the conference did not change their Erdös number during the conference?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 2

The person having the largest Erdös number at the end of the conference must have had Erdös number (at that time):

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 3

How many participants had the same Erdös number at the beginning of the conference?

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 4

The Erdös number of E at the beginning of the conference was

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 5

The Erdös number of C at the end of the conference was:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Comprehension. 44

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

Question. 1

The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 2

If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 3

If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 4

If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Question. 5

If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Comprehension. 45

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

• Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

• If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

Question. 1

If Michael ended up with Rs 100 less cash than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the difference in the number of shares possessed by Michael and Chetan (at the end of day 5)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Chetan ended up with Rs 1300 more cash than Michael at the end of day 5, what was the price of MCS share at the end of day 4?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Chetan and Michael at the end of the fifth day?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If Michael ended up with 20 more shares than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the price of the share at the end of day 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

If Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 46

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

• In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

• A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

• A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting.

• As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

It is also known that :

• All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

• Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.

• The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.

• 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

Question. 1

Which of the following statements must be true?

(a) IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.

(b) IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round I?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 47

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

• A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone. is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

Question. 1

After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 85, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is :

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 48

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 of first round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.

Question. 1

If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semifinals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 49

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that :

• In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

• Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

Question. 1

If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

Statement 2 : Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1 : Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

Statement 2 : Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 50

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs l00. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

Question. 1

If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.

II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.

III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?

I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 51

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The year was 2006, All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches

(A) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.

(B) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.

(C) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.

Question. 1

Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which one of the following statement is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 52

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given..

I. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.

II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.

III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the America would have had twice many experts as each of the other continents.

V. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.

Question. 1

Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?

(i) At least one

(ii) Atmost two

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If Ramos is the lone America expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 53

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsman got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his higest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.

 

Question. 1

How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 54

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the information given below.

In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the question in group A together carry at least 60% of the total marks.

Question. 1

If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best describes the number of questions in group B?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 55

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

Two days (Thursday and Friday) are left for campaigning before a major election, and the city administration has received requests from five political parties for taking out their processions along the following routes.

Congress :         A-C-D-E               BJP :A-B-D-E              SP : A-B-C-E

BSP :                 B-C-E                   CPM :                        A-C-D         

Street B-D cannot be used for a political procession on Thursday due to a religious procession. The district administration has a policy of not allowing more than one procession to pass along the same street on the same day. However, the administration must allow all parties to take out their processions during these two days.

Question. 1

Which of the following is NOT true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Congress procession can be allowed

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 56

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

Question. 1

D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on th right. To whose room was he trying to direct that person?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Who is/are F’s neighbour(s)?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Whose office faces A’s office?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 57

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five women decided to go shopping to M.G.Road, Banglore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order : (1) Archana, (2) Chellamma, (3) Dhenuka, (4) Helen, and (5) Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.

(i) The woman who spent Rs 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs 1193

(ii) One woman spent Rs 1340 and she was not Dhenuka

(iii) One woman spent Rs 1378 more than Chellamma

(iv) One woman spent Rs 2517 and she was not Archana

(v) Helen spent more than Dhenuka

(vi) Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest

Question. 1

The woman who spent Rs 1193 is

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following amount was spent by one of them?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

What was the amount spent by Helen?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 58

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five friends meet every morning at Sree sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idils and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8 while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.

(i) The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis

(ii) Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas, eat without chutney

(iii) Sandeep does not take any chutney

(iv) The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further he is not Mukesh

(v) Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada

(vi) Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does

(vii) Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal

 

Question. 1

Which one of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 59

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power , Defence, Telecom and Finance, F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.

Question. 1

Which is a valid assignment?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

If A gets Home and C gets Finance, then which is not a valid assignment for defence and Telecom?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 60

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Rang Barsey paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints, RBPC buys Red, Yellow, White, Orange and Pink paints. Orange paint can be also produced by mixing Red and Yellow paints in equal proportions. Similarly, Pink paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of Red and White paints. Among other paints , RBPC sells Cream paint, (formed by mixing White and Yellow in the ratio 70:30) Avocado paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and Pink paint ) and Washedorange paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and White paint.) The following table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints .

Question. 1

Assume that Avocado, Cream and Washedorange each sells for the same price . Which of the three is the most profitable to manufacture?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Washedorange can be manufactured by mixing

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

The cheapest way to manufacture avocado paint would cost

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 61

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professsor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.

Question. 1

Which of the following is one of the married couples?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is E’s profession?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many members of the group are males ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 62

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven versity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.

Question. 1

Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 63

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot?

(i) Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish

(ii) Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets

(iii) Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj

(iv) Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj

(v) Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets

Question. 1

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 64

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

New Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Buddhi. The sum of the number of projects handled by Gyani and Budhi individually is equal to the number of projects in which Medha is involved. All three consultants are involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works with Medha in 14 projects. Buddhi has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani, and 3 projects with Gyani but without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.

Question. 1

What is the number of projects in which Medha alone is involved?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

What is the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 65

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage.

Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family

Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

Anil is not the husband of Joya

Anil and Raj are fathers.

Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school.

Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

Question. 1

Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Of the following pairs, whose daughters go to the same school?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Name the correct pair of husband and wife?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Which woman arrived third?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 66

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

Question. 1

Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?

(I) A, D and G

(II) E and H

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

Which of the following statements is true?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Both G and H were sources to

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer - keys before C could make his answer-key?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Which one among the following must have two sources?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 67

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.

JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me

JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting here. There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was

SM :I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS, and DG in the lounge that day

SS : I left immediately after SM left

DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there

PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there

VR : No comments

Question. 1

Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Based on the responses, which of the two, JP or DG, entered the lounge first?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Comprehension. 68

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

A boy is asked to put in a basket one mango when ordered ‘One’, one orange when ordered ‘Two’, one apple when ordered ‘Three’ and is asked to take out from the basket one mango and an orange when ordered ‘Four’. A sequence of orders is given as :

1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4

Question. 1

Three travelers are sitting around a fire, and are about to eat a meal. One of them has five small loaves of bread, the second has three small loaves of bread. The third has no food, but has eight coins. He offers to pay for some bread. They agree to share the eight loaves equally among the three travelers, and the third traveler will pay eight coins for his share of the eight loaves. All loaves were the same size. The second traveler (who had three loaves) suggests that he be paid three coins, and that the first traveler be paid five coins. The first traveler says that he should get more than five coins. How much the first traveler should get?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 2

How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 3

How many total oranges were in the basket at the end of the above sequence?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 4

Six persons are playing a card game. Suresh is facing Raghubir who is to the left of Ajay and to the right of Pramod. Ajay isto the left of Dhiraj. Yogendra is to the left of Pramod. If Dhiraj exchanges his seat with Yogendra and Pramod exchanges with Raghubir, who will be sitting to the left of Dhiraj?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 5

Shyam visited Ram on vacation. In the mornings, they both would go for yoga. In the evenings they would play tennis. To have more fun, they indulge only in one activity per day, i.e., either they went for yoga or played tennis each day. There were days when they were lazy and stayed home all day long. There were 24 mornings when they did nothing, 14 evenings when they stayed at home, and a total of 22 days when they did yoga or played tennis. For how many days Shyam stayed with Ram?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 6

A rich merchant had collected many gold coins. He did not want anybody to know about them. One day, his wife asked, “How many gold coins do we have?” After pausing a moment, he replied, “Well! If I divide the coins into two unequal numbers, then 48 times the difference between the two numbers equals the difference between the squares of the two numbers.” The wife looked puzzled. Can you help the merchant’s wife by finding out how many gold coins the merchant has?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Question. 7

The owner of a local jewellery store hired 3 watchmen to guard his diamonds, but a thief still got in and stole some diamonds. On the way out, the thief met each watchman, one at a time. To each he gave 1/2 of the diamonds he had then, and 2 more besides. He escaped with one diamond. How many did he steal originally?

(a) (b) (c) (d)
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