CAT DILR Questions | CAT Data Tabulation questions

This sections contains CAT Past year questions based on DATA TABULATION — Caselet Based Problems on Data Tables; Combination of Data Table with other graphs. CAT DI based on Tables | CAT Past Year DILR Questions

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.

The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.

The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.

1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.

2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.

3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.

4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.

5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.

6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 1

What was Rini’s score in the project?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.

The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.

The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.

1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.

2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.

3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.

4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.

5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.

6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 2

What was the weight of the test component?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.

The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.

The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.

1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.

2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.

3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.

4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.

5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.

6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 3

What was the maximum aggregate score obtained by the students?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.

The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.

The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.

1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.

2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.

3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.

4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.

5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.

6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 4

What was Mathew’s score in the test?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are only three female students – Amala, Koli and Rini – and only three male students – Biman, Mathew and Shyamal – in a course. The course has two evaluation components, a project and a test. The aggregate score in the course is a weighted average of the two components, with the weights being positive and adding to 1.

The projects are done in groups of two, with each group consisting of a female and a male student. Both the group members obtain the same score in the project.

The following additional facts are known about the scores in the project and the test.

1. The minimum, maximum and the average of both project and test scores were identical – 40, 80 and 60, respectively.

2. The test scores of the students were all multiples of 10; four of them were distinct and the remaining two were equal to the average test scores.

3. Amala’s score in the project was double that of Koli in the same, but Koli scored 20 more than Amala in the test. Yet Amala had the highest aggregate score.

4. Shyamal scored the second highest in the test. He scored two more than Koli, but two less than Amala in the aggregate.

5. Biman scored the second lowest in the test and the lowest in the aggregate.

6. Mathew scored more than Rini in the project, but less than her in the test.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 5

Which of the following pairs of students were part of the same project team?

i) Amala and Biman

ii) Koli and Mathew

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.

The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.

The following facts are known.

1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.

2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.

3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.

4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.

5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.

6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 6

Which one among the following stations is visited the largest number of times?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.

The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.

The following facts are known.

1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.

2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.

3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.

4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.

5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.

6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 7

How many times do the teams pass through Station B in a day?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.

The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.

The following facts are known.

1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.

2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.

3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.

4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.

5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.

6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 8

Which team patrols the street connecting Stations D and E at 10:15 hrs?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.

The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.

The following facts are known.

1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.

2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.

3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.

4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.

5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.

6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 9

How many times does Team 4 pass through Station E in a day?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A, B, C, D, E and F are the six police stations in an area, which are connected by streets as shown below. Four teams – Team 1, Team 2, Team 3 and Team 4 – patrol these streets continuously between 09:00 hrs. and 12:00 hrs. each day.

The teams need 30 minutes to cross a street connecting one police station to another. All four teams start from Station A at 09:00 hrs. and must return to Station A by 12:00 hrs. They can also pass via Station A at any point on their journeys.

The following facts are known.

1. None of the streets has more than one team traveling along it in any direction at any point in time.

2. Teams 2 and 3 are the only ones in stations E and D respectively at 10:00 hrs.

3. Teams 1 and 3 are the only ones in station E at 10:30 hrs.

4. Teams 1 and 4 are the only ones in stations B and E respectively at 11:30 hrs.

5. Team 1 and Team 4 are the only teams that patrol the street connecting stations A and E.

6. Team 4 never passes through Stations B, D or F.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 10

How many teams pass through Station C in a day?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.

The following information is also known:

1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.

2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.

3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.

4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.

5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.

7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 11

How many Split Inverter ACs did D2 sell?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.

The following information is also known:

1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.

2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.

3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.

4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.

5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.

7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 12

What percentage of ACs sold were of Non-inverter type?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.

The following information is also known:

1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.

2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.

3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.

4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.

5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.

7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 13

What was the total number of ACs sold by D2 and D4?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.

The following information is also known:

1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.

2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.

3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.

4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.

5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.

7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 14

Which of the following statements is necessarily false?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

An air conditioner (AC) company has four dealers – D1, D2, D3 and D4 in a city. It is evaluating sales performances of these dealers. The company sells two variants of ACs – Window and Split. Both these variants can be either Inverter type or Non-inverter type. It is known that of the total number of ACs sold in the city, 25% were of Window variant, while the rest were of Split variant. Among the Inverter ACs sold, 20% were of Window variant.

The following information is also known:

1. Every dealer sold at least two window ACs.

2. D1 sold 13 inverter ACs, while D3 sold 5 Non-inverter ACs.

3. A total of six Window Non-inverter ACs and 36 Split Inverter ACs were sold in the city.

4. The number of Split ACs sold by D1 was twice the number of Window ACs sold by it.

5. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Window ACs and this number was one-third of the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

6. D2 and D3 were the only ones who sold Window Non-inverter ACs. The number of these ACs sold by D2 was twice the number of these ACs sold by D3.

7. D3 and D4 sold an equal number of Split Inverter ACs. This number was half the number of similar ACs sold by D2.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 15

If D3 and D4 sold an equal number of ACs, then what was the number of Non-inverter ACs sold by D2?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.

The following additional facts are known.

1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.

2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.

3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.

4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.

5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 16

What was the total number of registrations in April?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.

The following additional facts are known.

1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.

2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.

3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.

4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.

5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 17

\What was the number of online registrations in January?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.

The following additional facts are known.

1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.

2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.

3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.

4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.

5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 18

Which of the following statements can be true?

I. The number of offline registrations was the smallest in May.

II. The total number of registrations was the smallest in February.

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.

The following additional facts are known.

1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.

2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.

3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.

4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.

5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 19

What best can be concluded about the number of offline registrations in February?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a coaching class, some students register online, and some others register offline. No student registers both online and offline; hence the total registration number is the sum of online and offline registrations. The following facts and table pertain to these registration numbers for the five months – January to May of 2023. The table shows the minimum, maximum, median registration numbers of these five months, separately for online, offline and total number of registrations.

The following additional facts are known.

1. In every month, both online and offline registration numbers were multiples of 10.

2. In January, the number of offline registrations was twice that of online registrations.

3. In April, the number of online registrations was twice that of offline registrations.

4. The number of online registrations in March was the same as the number of offline registrations in February.

5. The number of online registrations was the largest in May.

CAT/2023.3(DILR)

Question. 20

Which pair of months definitely had the same total number of registrations?

I. January and April

II. February and May

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.

2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.

3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 21

What is Akhil's score on Day 1?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.

2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.

3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 22

Who attains the maximum total score?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.

2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.

3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 23

What is the minimum possible total score of Bimal?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.

2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.

3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 24

If the total score of Bimal is a multiple of 3, what is the score of Akhil on Day 2?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Three participants – Akhil, Bimal and Chatur participate in a random draw competition for five days. Every day, each participant randomly picks up a ball numbered between 1 and 9. The number on the ball determines his score on that day. The total score of a participant is the sum of his scores attained in the five days. The total score of a day is the sum of participants’ scores on that day. The 2-day average on a day, except on Day 1, is the average of the total scores of that day and of the previous day. For example, if the total scores of Day 1 and Day 2 are 25 and 20, then the 2-day average on Day 2 is calculated as 22.5. Table 1 gives the 2-day averages for Days 2 through 5.

Participants are ranked each day, with the person having the maximum score being awarded the minimum rank (1) on that day. If there is a tie, all participants with the tied score are awarded the best available rank. For example, if on a day Akhil, Bimal, and Chatur score 8, 7 and 7 respectively, then their ranks will be 1, 2 and 2 respectively on that day. These ranks are given in Table 2.

The following information is also known.

1. Chatur always scores in multiples of 3. His score on Day 2 is the unique highest score in the competition. His minimum score is observed only on Day 1, and it matches Akhil’s score on Day 4.

2. The total score on Day 3 is the same as the total score on Day 4.

3. Bimal’s scores are the same on Day 1 and Day 3.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 25

If Akhil attains a total score of 24, then what is the total score of Bimal?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.

The following information is also known.

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).

2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.

3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.

4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 26

What was the total amount spent on tickets (in Rs.) by Bipasha?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.

The following information is also known.

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).

2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.

3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.

4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 27

Which were all the rides that Anjali completed by 2:00 pm?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.

The following information is also known.

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).

2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.

3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.

4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 28

Which ride was taken by all three visitors?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.

The following information is also known.

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).

2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.

3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.

4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 29

How many rides did Anjali and Chitra take in total?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Anjali, Bipasha, and Chitra visited an entertainment park that has four rides. Each ride lasts one hour and can accommodate one visitor at one point. All rides begin at 9 am and must be completed by 5 pm except for Ride-3, for which the last ride has to be completed by 1 pm. Ride gates open every 30 minutes, e.g. 10 am, 10:30 am, and so on. Whenever a ride gate opens, and there is no visitor inside, the first visitor waiting in the queue buys the ticket just before taking the ride. The ticket prices are Rs. 20, Rs. 50, Rs. 30 and Rs. 40 for Rides 1 to 4, respectively. Each of the three visitors took at least one ride and did not necessarily take all rides. None of them took the same ride more than once. The movement time from one ride to another is negligible, and a visitor leaves the ride immediately after the completion of the ride. No one takes a break inside the park unless mentioned explicitly.

The following information is also known.

1. Chitra never waited in the queue and completed her visit by 11 am after spending Rs. 50 to pay for the ticket(s).

2. Anjali took Ride-1 at 11 am after waiting for 30 mins for Chitra to complete it. It was the only ride where Anjali waited.

3. Bipasha began her first of three rides at 11:30 am. All three visitors incurred the same amount of ticket expense by 12:15 pm.

4. The last ride taken by Anjali and Bipasha was the same, where Bipasha waited 30 mins for Anjali to complete her ride. Before standing in the queue for that ride, Bipasha took a 1-hour coffee break after completing her previous ride.

CAT/2023.2(DILR)

Question. 30

What was the total amount spent on tickets (in Rs.) by Anjali?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.

The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.

The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.

Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.

The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.

(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.

(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf

 

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 31

How many individual ratings cannot be determined from the above information?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.

The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.

The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.

Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.

The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.

(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.

(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf

 

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 32

To how many workers did R2 give a rating of 4?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.

The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.

The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.

Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.

The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.

(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.

(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf

 

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 33

What rating did R1 give to Xavier?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.

The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.

The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.

Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.

The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.

(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.

(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf

 

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 34

What is the median of the ratings given by R3 to the five workers?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Five restaurants, coded R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 gave integer ratings to five gig workers – Ullas, Vasu, Waman, Xavier and Yusuf, on a scale of 1 to 5.

The means of the ratings given by R1, R2, R3, R4 and R5 were 3.4, 2.2, 3.8, 2.8 and 3.4 respectively.

The summary statistics of these ratings for the five workers is given below.

Range of ratings is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum ratings awarded to a worker.

The following is partial information about ratings of 1 and 5 awarded by the restaurants to the workers.

(a) R1 awarded a rating of 5 to Waman, as did R2 to Xavier, R3 to Waman and Xavier, and R5 to Vasu.

(b) R1 awarded a rating of 1 to Ullas, as did R2 to Waman and Yusuf, and R3 to Yusuf

 

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 35

Which among the following restaurants gave its median rating to exactly one of the workers?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.

There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.

On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.

1. All slots were full.

2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.

3. 50% of the applications were US applications.

4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.

5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 36

How many UK applications were scheduled on that day?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.

There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.

On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.

1. All slots were full.

2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.

3. 50% of the applications were US applications.

4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.

5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 37

What is the maximum possible value of the total time (in minutes, nearest to its integer value) required to process all applications in the Others category on that day?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.

There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.

On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.

1. All slots were full.

2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.

3. 50% of the applications were US applications.

4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.

5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 38

Which of the following is the closest to the time when Nandini’s application process got over?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.

There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.

On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.

1. All slots were full.

2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.

3. 50% of the applications were US applications.

4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.

5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 39

Which of the following statements is false?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A visa processing office (VPO) accepts visa applications in four categories – US, UK, Schengen, and Others. The applications are scheduled for processing in twenty 15-minute slots starting at 9:00 am and ending at 2:00 pm. Ten applications are scheduled in each slot.

There are ten counters in the office, four dedicated to US applications, and two each for UK applications, Schengen applications and Others applications. Applicants are called in for processing sequentially on a first-come-first-served basis whenever a counter gets freed for their category. The processing time for an application is the same within each category. But it may vary across the categories. Each US and UK application requires 10 minutes of processing time. Depending on the number of applications in a category and time required to process an application for that category, it is possible that an applicant for a slot may be processed later.

On a particular day, Ira, Vijay and Nandini were scheduled for Schengen visa processing in that order. They had a 9:15 am slot but entered the VPO at 9:20 am. When they entered the office, exactly six out of the ten counters were either processing applications, or had finished processing one and ready to start processing the next.

Mahira and Osman were scheduled in the 9:30 am slot on that day for visa processing in the Others category.

The following additional information is known about that day.

1. All slots were full.

2. The number of US applications was the same in all the slots. The same was true for the other three categories.

3. 50% of the applications were US applications.

4. All applicants except Ira, Vijay and Nandini arrived on time.

5. Vijay was called to a counter at 9:25 am.

CAT/2023.1(DILR)

Question. 40

When did the application processing for all US applicants get over on that day?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

                                                           

 

Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 41

If Hari is ready to board a train at 8:05 am from station M, then when is the earliest that he can reach station N?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

                                                           

 

Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 42

If Priya is ready to board a train at 10:25 am from station T, then when is the earliest that she can reach station S?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

                                                           

 

Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 43

Haripriya is expected to reach station S late. What is the latest time by which she must be ready to board at station S if she must reach station B before 1 am via station R?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

                                                           

 

Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 44

What is the minimum number of trains that are required to provide the service on the AB line (considering both north and south directions)?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

                                                           

 

Given above is the schematic map of the metro lines in a city with rectangles denoting terminal stations (e.g. A), diamonds denoting junction stations (e.g. R) and small filled-up circles denoting other stations. Each train runs either in east-west or north-south direction, but not both. All trains stop for 2 minutes at each of the junction stations on the way and for 1 minute at each of the other stations. It takes 2 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in east-west direction and 3 minutes to reach the next station for trains going in northsouth direction. From each terminal station, the first train starts at 6 am; the last trains leave the terminal stations at midnight. Otherwise, during the service hours, there are metro service every 15 minutes in the north-south lines and every 10 minutes in the east-west lines. A train must rest for at least 15 minutes after completing a trip at the terminal station, before it can undertake the next trip in the reverse direction. (All questions are related to this metro service only. Assume that if someone reaches a station exactly at the time a train is supposed to leave, (s)he can catch that train.)

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 45

What is the minimum number of trains that are required to provide the service in this city?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.

One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.

The following additional facts are known.

  • No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
  • Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
  • Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
  • No one had any banana leftover.

CAT/2021.1(DILR)

Question. 46

What BEST can be concluded about the number of units of fruit salad sold in the first hour?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.

One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.

The following additional facts are known.

  • No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
  • Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
  • Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
  • No one had any banana leftover.

CAT/2021.1(DILR)

Question. 47

Which of the following is NECESSARILY true?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.

One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.

The following additional facts are known.

  • No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
  • Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
  • Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
  • No one had any banana leftover.

CAT/2021.1(DILR)

Question. 48

What BEST can be concluded about the total number of units of milk the three women had in the beginning?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ganga, Kaveri, and Narmada are three women who buy four raw materials (Mango, Apple, Banana, and Milk) and sell five finished products (Mango smoothie, Apple smoothie, Banana smoothie, Mixed fruit smoothie and Fruit salad). Table-1 gives information about the raw materials required to produce the five finished products. One unit of a finished product requires one unit of each of the raw materials mentioned in the second column of the table.

One unit of milk, mango, apple, and banana cost ₹5, ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 respectively. Each unit of a finished product is sold for a profit equal to two times the number of raw materials used to make that product. For example, apple smoothie is made with two raw materials (apple and milk) and will be sold for a profit of ₹4 per unit. Leftover raw materials are sold during the last business hour of the day for a loss of ₹1 per unit. The amount, in rupees, received from sales (revenue) for each woman in each of the four
business hours of the day is given in Table-2.

The following additional facts are known.

  • No one except possibly Ganga sold any Mango smoothie.
  • Each woman sold either zero or one unit of any single finished product in any hour.
  • Each woman had exactly one unit each of two different raw materials as leftovers.
  • No one had any banana leftover.

CAT/2021.1(DILR)

Question. 49

If it is known that three leftover units of mangoes were sold during the last business hour of the day, how many apple smoothies were sold during the day?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 50

What BEST can be said about object o8?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 51

Who among the following envies someone else?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 52

What is Amar’s value for his own bundle?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 53

Object o4 was given to

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 54

Object o5 was given to

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten objects o1, o2, …, o10 were distributed among Amar, Barat, Charles, Disha, and Elise. Each item went to exactly one person. Each person got exactly two of the items, and this pair of objects is called her/his bundle.
The following table shows how each person values each object.

The value of any bundle by a person is the sum of that person’s values of the objects in that bundle. A person X envies another person Y if X values Y’s bundle more than X’s own bundle.

For example, hypothetically suppose Amar’s bundle consists of o1 and o2, and Barat’s bundle consists of o3 and o4. Then Amar values his own bundle at 4 + 9 = 13 and Barat’s bundle at 9 + 3 = 12. Hence Amar does not envy Barat. On the other hand, Barat values his own bundle at 7 + 5 = 12 and Amar’s bundle at 5 + 9 = 14. Hence Barat envies Amar. 

The following facts are known about the actual distribution of the objects among the five people.

  1. If someone’s value for an object is 10, then she/he received that object.
  2. Objects o1, o2, and o3 were given to three different people.
  3. Objects o1 and o8 were given to different people.
  4. Three people value their own bundles at 16. No one values her/his own bundle at a number higher than 16.
  5. Disha values her own bundle at an odd number. All others value their own bundles at an even number.
  6. Some people who value their own bundles less than 16 envy some other people who value their own bundle at 16. No one else envies others.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 55

What BEST can be said about the distribution of object o1?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.

For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 56

Which of the following statements is/are true?
I: The total project-month was the same for the four employees.
II: The total employee-month was the same for the five projects.

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.

For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 57

Which employees did not work in multiple projects for any of the months in 2020?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.

For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 58

The project duration, measured in terms of the number of months, is the time during which at least one employee worked in the project. Which of the following pairs of the projects had the same duration?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The figure above shows the schedule of four employees – Abani, Bahni, Danni and Tinni – whom Dhoni supervised in 2020. Altogether there were five projects which started and concluded in 2020 in which they were involved. For each of these projects and for each employee, the starting day was at the beginning of a month and the concluding day was the end of a month, and these are indicated by the left and right end points of the corresponding horizontal bars. The number within each bar indicates the percentage of assigned work completed by the employee for that project, as assessed by Dhoni.

For each employee, his/her total project-month (in 2020) is the sum of the number of months (s)he worked across the five project, while his/her annual completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned from the different projects, with the weights being the corresponding number of months (s)he worked in these projects. For each project, the total employee-month is the sum of the number of months four employees worked in this project, while its completion index is the weightage average of the completion percentage assigned for the employees who worked in this project, with the weights being the corresponding number of months they worked in this project.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 59

The list of employees in decreasing order of annual completion index is:

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 60

Who among the following did not appear for the Mathematics examination?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 61

Which students did not appear for the English examination?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 62

What BEST can be concluded about the students who missed the Science examination?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 63

How many out of these six students missed exactly one examination?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 64

For how many students can we be definite about which examinations they missed?

 
 

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

In a certain board examination, students were to appear for examination in five subjects: English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science and Social Science. Due to a certain emergency situation, a few of the examinations could not be conducted for some students. Hence, some students missed one examination and some others missed two examinations. Nobody missed more than two examinations.

The board adopted the following policy for awarding marks to students. If a student appeared in all five examinations, then the marks awarded in each of the examinations were on the basis of the scores obtained by them in those examinations.

If a student missed only one examination, then the marks awarded in that examination was the average of the best three among the four scores in the examinations they appeared for.

If a student missed two examinations, then the marks awarded in each of these examinations was the average of the best two among the three scores in the examinations they appeared for.

The marks obtained by six students in the examination are given in the table below. Each of them missed either one or two examinations.
 

  English Hindi  Mathematics  Science Social Science
Alva 80 75 70 75 60
Bithi 90 80 55 85 85
Carl 75 80 90 100 90
Deep 70 90 100 90 80
Esha 80 85 95 60 55
Foni 83 72 78 88 83

The following facts are also known.


I. Four of these students appeared in each of the English, Hindi, Science, and Social Science examinations.

II. The student who missed the Mathematics examination did not miss any other examination.

III. One of the students who missed the Hindi examination did not miss any other examination. The other student who missed the Hindi examination also missed the Science examination.

 

CAT/2020.1(DILR)

Question. 65

What BEST can be concluded about the students who did not appear for the Hindi examination?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.



The following additional information is known.


1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.    
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel         departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 66

In HomeDecor departments of which cities were the sales amounts the highest in 2018 and 2019, respectively?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.



The following additional information is known.


1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.    
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel         departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 67

What was the increase in sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in the Apparel department of Mumbai from 2018 to 2019?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.



The following additional information is known.


1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.    
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel         departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 68

Among all the 12 departments (i.e., the 3 departments in each of the 4 cities), what was the maximum percentage increase in sales amount from 2018 to 2019?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A chain of departmental stores has outlets in Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru and Kolkata. The sales are categorized by its three departments – ‘Apparel’, ‘Electronics’, and ‘HomeDecor’. An Accountant has been asked to prepare a summary of the 2018 and 2019 sales amounts for an internal report. He has collated partial information and prepared the following table.



The following additional information is known.


1. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Delhi and Kolkata in 2018. 
2. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments were the same for Mumbai and Bengaluru in 2018. This sales amount matched the sales amount in the Apparel department for Delhi in 2019.    
3. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments were the same for Mumbai and Kolkata in 2018. 
4. The sum of the sales amounts of four Electronics departments increased by the same amount as the sum of the sales amounts of four Apparel         departments from 2018 to 2019.
5. The total sales amounts of the four HomeDecor departments increased by Rs 70 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
6. The sales amounts in the HomeDecor departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by Rs 20 Crores from 2018 to 2019.
7. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi and Bengaluru each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Mumbai and Kolkata also each increased by the same amount in 2019 from 2018.
8. The sales amounts in the Apparel departments of Delhi, Kolkata and Bengaluru in 2019 followed an Arithmetic Progression.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 69

What was the total sales amount, in Crore Rupees, in 2019 for the chain of departmental stores?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 70

What is the percentage of votes polled in total by all the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for constituency A?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 71

How many candidates who contested in constituency B lost their security deposit?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 72

What BEST can be concluded about the number of votes polled by the winning candidate in constituency C?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 73

What was the number of valid votes polled in constituency D?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 74

The winning margin of a constituency is defined as the difference of votes polled by the winner and that of the first runner up. Which of the following CANNOT be the list of constituencies, in increasing order of winning margin?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In an election several candidates contested for a constituency. In any constituency, the winning candidate was the one who polled the highest number of votes, the first runner up was the one who polled the second highest number of votes, the second runner up was the one who polled the third highest number of votes, and so on. There were no ties (in terms of number of votes polled by the candidates) in any of the constituencies in this election.

In an electoral system, a security deposit is the sum of money that a candidate is required to pay to the election commission before he or she is permitted to contest. Only the defeated candidates (i.e., one who is not the winning candidate) who fail to secure more than one sixth of the valid votes polled in the constituency, lose their security deposits.

The following table provides some incomplete information about votes polled in four constituencies: A, B, C and D, in this election.

  Constituency
         A            B          C      D
No. of candidates contesting      10           12          5      8
Total No. of valid votes polled   5,00,000         3,25,000        6,00,030.    
No. of votes polled by the winning candidate.        2,75,000        48,750    
No. of votes polled by the first runner up     95,000         37,500.  
No. of votes polled by the second runner up          30,000.  
% of valid votes polled by the third runner up            10%  

The following additional facts are known:

1. The first runner up polled 10,000 more votes than the second runner up in constituency A.

2. None of the candidates who contested in constituency C lost their security deposit. The difference in votes polled by any pair of candidates in this constituency was at least 10,000

3. The winning candidate in constituency D polled 5% of valid votes more than that of the first runner up. All the candidates who lost their security deposits while contesting for this constituency, put together, polled 35% of the valid votes.

 

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 75

For all the four constituencies taken together, what was the approximate number of votes polled by all the candidates who lost their security deposit expressed as a percentage of the total valid votes from these four constituencies?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 76

Among the following days, the largest fraction of orders booked on which day was lost?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 77

On which of the following days was the number of orders booked the highest?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 78

The delivery ratio for a given day is defined as the ratio of the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the next day to the number of orders booked on that day which are delivered on the second day after booking. On which of the following days, was the delivery ratio the highest?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

XYZ organization got into the business of delivering groceries to home at the beginning of the last month. They have a two-day delivery promise. However, their deliveries are unreliable. An order booked on a particular day may be delivered the next day or the day after. If the order is not delivered at the end of two days, then the order is declared as lost at the end of the second day. XYZ then does not deliver the order, but informs the customer, marks the order as lost, returns the payment and pays a penalty for non-delivery.

The following table provides details about the operations of XYZ for a week of the last month. The first column gives the date, the second gives the cumulative number of orders that were booked up to and including that day. The third column represents the number of orders delivered on that day. The last column gives the cumulative number of orders that were lost up to and including that day.  
It is known that the numbers of orders that were booked on the 11th, 12th, and 13th of the last month that took two days to deliver were 4, 6, and 8 respectively.  

Day Cumulative orders booked Orders delivered on day Cumulative orders lost
13th 219 11 91
14th 249 27 92
15th 277 23 94
16th 302 11 106
17th 327 21 118
18th 332 13 120
19th 337 14 129

 

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 79

The average time taken to deliver orders booked on a particular day is computed as follows. Let the number of orders delivered the next day be x and the number of orders delivered the day after be y. Then the average time to deliver order is (x+2y)/(x+y). On which of the following days was the average time taken to deliver orders booked the least?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.

    
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 80

Suppose vial C tests positive and vials A, E and H test negative. Which patient has the disease?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.

    
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 81

Suppose vial A tests positive and vials D and G test negative. Which of the following vials should we test next to identify the patient with the disease?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.

    
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 82

Which of the following combinations of test results is NOT possible?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Sixteen patients in a hospital must undergo a blood test for a disease. It is known that exactly one of them has the disease. The hospital has only eight testing kits and has decided to pool blood samples of patients into eight vials for the tests. The patients are numbered 1 through 16, and the vials are labelled A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H. The following table shows the vials into which each patient’s blood sample is distributed.

    
If a patient has the disease, then each vial containing his/her blood sample will test positive. If a vial tests positive, one of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease. If a vial tests negative, then none of the patients whose blood samples were mixed in the vial has the disease.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 83

Suppose one of the lab assistants accidentally mixed two patients' blood samples before they were distributed to the vials. Which of the following correctly represents the set of all possible numbers of positive test results out of the eight vials?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing

CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 1

The following facts are also known.


1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

CAT/2019.1(DILR)

Question. 84

What was the highest total score?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing

CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 1

The following facts are also known.


1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

CAT/2019.1(DILR)

Question. 85

What was Zeneca's total score?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing

CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 1

The following facts are also known.


1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

CAT/2019.1(DILR)

Question. 86

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Six players – Tanzi, Umeza, Wangdu, Xyla, Yonita and Zeneca competed in an archery tournament. The tournament had three compulsory rounds, Rounds 1 to 3. In each round every player shot an arrow at a target. Hitting the centre of the target (called bull’s eye) fetched the highest score of 5. The only other possible scores that a player could achieve were 4, 3, 2 and 1. Every bull’s eye score in the first three rounds gave a player one additional chance to shoot in the bonus rounds, Rounds 4 to 6. The possible scores in Rounds 4 to 6 were identical to the first three.
A player’s total score in the tournament was the sum of his/her scores in all rounds played by him/her. The table below presents partial information on points scored by the players after completion of the tournament. In the table, NP means that the player did not participate in that round, while a hyphen means that the player participated in that round and the score information is missing

CAT DI LR 2019 Slot 1

The following facts are also known.


1.Tanzi, Umeza and Yonita had the same total score.
2.Total scores for all players, except one, were in multiples of three.
3.The highest total score was one more than double of the lowest total score.
4.The number of players hitting bull’s eye in Round 2 was double of that in Round 3. 5.Tanzi and Zeneca had the same score in Round 1 but different scores in Round 3.

CAT/2019.1(DILR)

Question. 87

What was Tanzi's score in Round 3?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.

The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 88

What were the scores of Chen, David, and Eric respectively after Round 3?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.

The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 89

Which three players were in the last three positions after Round 4?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.

The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 90

Which player scored points in maximum number of rounds?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ten players, as listed in the table below, participated in a rifle shooting competition comprising of 10 rounds. Each round had 6 participants. Players numbered 1 through 6 participated in Round 1, players 2 through 7 in Round 2,..., players 5 through 10 in Round 5, players 6 through 10 and 1 in Round 6, players 7 through 10, 1 and 2 in Round 7 and so on. The top three performances in each round were awarded 7, 3 and 1 points respectively. There were no ties in any of the 10 rounds. The table below gives the total number of points
obtained by the 10 players after Round 6 and Round 10.

The following information is known about Rounds 1 through 6:
1. Gordon did not score consecutively in any two rounds.
2. Eric and Fatima both scored in a round.
The following information is known about Rounds 7 through 10:
1. Only two players scored in three consecutive rounds. One of them was Chen. No other player scored in any two consecutive rounds.
2. Joshin scored in Round 7, while Amita scored in Round 10.
3. No player scored in all the four rounds.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 91

Which players scored points in the last round?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.

Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 1

Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:


1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 92

Which of the following statements MUST be true?

1.Jatin's composite score was more than that of Danish.
2.Indu scored less than Chetna in DI.
3.Jatin scored more than Indu in GA.

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.

Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 1

Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:


1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 93

Which of the following statements MUST be FALSE?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.

Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 1

Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:


1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 94

If all the candidates except Ajay and Danish had different marks in DI, and Bala's composite score was less than Chetna's composite score, then what is the maximum marks that Bala could have scored in DI?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

A company administers a written test comprising of three sections of 20 marks each – Data Interpretation (DI), Written English (WE) and General Awareness (GA), for recruitment. A composite score for a candidate (out of 80) is calculated by doubling her marks in DI and adding it to the sum of her marks in the other two sections. Candidates who score less than 70% marks in two or more sections are disqualified. From among the rest, the four with the highest composite scores are recruited. If four or less candidates qualify, all who qualify are recruited.

Ten candidates appeared for the written test. Their marks in the test are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 1

Some marks in the table are missing, but the following facts are known:


1. No two candidates had the same composite score.
2. Ajay was the unique highest scorer in WE.
3. Among the four recruited, Geeta had the lowest composite score.
4. Indu was recruited.
5. Danish, Harini, and Indu had scored the same marks the in GA.
6. Indu and Jatin both scored 100% in exactly one section and Jatin’s composite score was 10 more than Indu’s.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 95

If all the candidates scored different marks in WE then what is the maximum marks that Harini could have scored in WE? 

Explanation

Comprehension

An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 96

What is the weight of the faculty quality parameter?

Comprehension

An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 97

How many colleges receive the accreditation of AAA? 

Explanation

Comprehension

An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 98

What is the highest overall score among the eight colleges? [

Explanation

Comprehension

An agency entrusted to accredit colleges looks at four parameters: faculty quality (F), reputation (R), placement quality (P), and infrastructure (I). The four parameters are used to arrive at an overall score, which the agency uses to give an accreditation to the colleges. In each parameter, there are five possible letter grades given, each carrying certain points: A (50 points), B (40 points), C (30 points), D (20 points), and F (0 points). The overall score for a college is the weighted sum of the points scored in the four parameters. The weights of the parameters are 0.1, 0.2, 0.3 and 0.4 in some order, but the order is not disclosed.

Accreditation is awarded based on the following scheme:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Eight colleges apply for accreditation, and receive the following grades in the four parameters (F, R, P, and I):

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

It is further known that in terms of overall scores:
1. High Q is better than Best Ed.
2. Best Ed is better than Cosmopolitan.
3. Education Aid is better than A-one.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 99

How many colleges have overall scores between 31 and 40, both inclusive?

Comprehension

Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 100

What best can be said about the room to which Divya was allotted?

Comprehension

Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 101

Who else was in Room 102 when Ganeshan entered?

Comprehension

Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 102

When did Erina reach the venue?

Comprehension

Seven candidates, Akil, Balaram, Chitra, Divya, Erina, Fatima, and Ganeshan, were invited to interview for a position. Candidates were required to reach the venue before 8 am. Immediately upon arrival, they were sent to one of three interview rooms: 101, 102, and 103. The following venue log shows the arrival times for these candidates. Some of the names have not been recorded in the log and have been marked as ‘?’.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

Additionally here are some statements from the candidates:
Balaram: I was the third person to enter Room 101.
Chitra: I was the last person to enter the room I was allotted to.
Erina: I was the only person in the room I was allotted to.
Fatima: Three people including Akil were already in the room that I was allotted to when I entered it.
Ganeshan: I was one among the two candidates allotted to Room 102.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 103

If Ganeshan entered the venue before Divya, when did Balaram enter the venue?

Comprehension

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 104

Assume that only one client’s order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while previous order is being prepared.
At what time is the order placed by client 1 completely served?

Comprehension

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 105

Assume that only one client’s order can be processed at any given point of time. So, Anish or Bani cannot start preparing a new order while previous order is being prepared.
At what time is the order placed by client 3 completely served?

Comprehension

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 106

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier.
At what time is the order placed by client 2 completely served?

Comprehension

Healthy Bites is a fast food joint serving three items: burgers, fries and ice cream. It has two employees Anish and Bani who prepare the items ordered by the clients. Preparation time is 10 minutes for a burger and 2 minutes for an order of ice cream. An employee can prepare only one of these items at a time. The fries are prepared in an automatic fryer which can prepare up to 3 portions of fries at a time, and take 5 minutes irrespective of the number of portions. The fryer does not need an employee to constantly attend to it, and we can ignore time taken by an employee to start and stop the fryer; thus, an employee can be engaged in preparing other items while the frying is on. However, fries cannot be prepared in anticipation of future orders.

Healthy Bites wishes to serve the orders as early as possible. The individual items in any orders are served as and when ready; however, the order is considered to be completely served only when all the items of that order are served.

The table below gives the orders of three clients and the times at which they placed their orders:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 107

Suppose the employees are allowed to process multiple orders at a time, but the preference would be to finish orders of clients who placed their orders earlier. Also assume that the fourth client came in only at 10:35. Between 10:00 and 10:30, for how many minutes is exactly one of the employees idle?

Comprehension

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 108

What percentage of kids from S were studying in P?

Comprehension

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 109

Among the kids in W whose mothers had completed primary education, how many were not in school?

Comprehension

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 110

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What number of the surveyed kids now were in G in W?

Comprehension

A study to look at the early learning of rural kids was carried out in a number of village spanning three states, chosen from the North East (NE), the West (W) and the South (S). 50 four-year old kids each were sampled from each of the 150 villages from NE, 250 villages from W and 200 villages from S. It was found that of the 30000 surveyed kids 55% studied in primary schools run by government (G), 37% in private schools (P) while the remaining 8% did not go to school (O).

The kids surveyed were further divided into two groups based on whether their mothers dropped out of school before completing primary education or not. The table below gives the number of kids in different type of schools for mothers who dropped out of school before completing primary education:

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 1

It is also known that:
1.In S, 60% of the surveyed kids were in G. Moreover, in S, all surveyed kids whose mothers had completed primary education were in school.
2.In NE, among the O kids, 50% had mothers who had dropped out before completing primary education.
3.The number of kids in G in NE was the same as the number of kids in G in W.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 111

In a follow up survey of the same kids two years later, it was found that all the kids were now in school. Of the kids who were not in school earlier, in one region, 25% were in G now, whereas the rest were enrolled in P; in the second region, all such kids were in G now; while in the third region, 50% of such kids had now joined G while the rest had joined P. As a result, in all three regions put together, 50% of the kids who were earlier out of school had joined G. It was also seen that no surveyed kid had changed schools.
What percentage of the surveyed kids in S, whose mothers had dropped out before completing primary education, were in G now?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Data Interpretation: Many Graphs

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 112

How many elective courses among E1 to E6 had a decrease in their enrolments after the change process?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Data Interpretation: Many Graphs

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 113

After the change process, which of the following is the correct sequence of number of students in the six electives E1 to E6?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Data Interpretation: Many Graphs

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 114

After the change process, which courses among E1 to E6 had the largest change in its enrolment as a percentage of its original enrolment?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There were seven elective courses – E1 to E7 - running in a specific term in a college. Each of the 300 students enrolled had chosen just one elective from among these seven. However, before the start of the term, E7 was withdrawn as the instructor concerned had left the college. The students who had opted for E7 were allowed to join any of the remaining electives. Also, the students who had chosen other electives were given one chance to change their choice. The table below captures the movement of the students from one elective to another during this process. Movement from one elective to the same elective simply means no movement. Some numbers in the table got accidentally erased; however, it is known that these were either 0 or 1.
Further, the following are known:
1. Before the change process there were 6 more students in E1 than in E4, but after the reshuffle, the number of students in E4 was 3 more than that in E1.
2. The number of students in E2 increased by 30 after the change process.
3. Before the change process, E4 had 2 more students than E6, while E2 had 10 more students than E3.
The table is given below -
Data Interpretation: Many Graphs

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 115

Later, the college imposed a condition that if after the change of electives, the enrolment in any elective (other than E7) dropped to less than 20 students, all the students who had left that course will be required to re-enrol for that elective.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of electives in decreasing order of their final enrolments?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.

Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 2

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 116

How many Thin Crust pizzas were to be delivered to Party 3?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.

Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 2

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 117

How many Normal Cheese pizzas were required to be delivered to Party 1?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.

Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 2

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 118

For Party 2, if 50% of the Normal Cheese pizzas were of Thin Crust variety, what was the difference between the numbers of TEC and D-EC pizzas to be delivered to Party 2?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Funky Pizzeria was required to supply Pizzas to three different parties. The total number of Pizzas it had to deliver was 800. 70% of which was to be delivered to Party 3 and the rest equally divided between Party 1 and Party 2.

Pizzas could be of Thin Crust (T) or Deep Dish (D) variety and come in either Normal Cheese (NC) or Extra Cheese (EC) versions. Hence, there are 4 types of Pizzas: T – NC, T – EC, D-NC, D-EC. Partial information about proportions of T and NC pizzas ordered by the three parties are given below.

CAT DI LR 2017 Slot 2

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 119

Suppose that a T-NC pizza cost as much as a D-NC pizza, but of the price of a D-EC pizza. A D-EC pizza costs Rs. 50 more than a T-EC pizza, and the latter costs Rs. 500. If 25% of the Normal Cheese pizzas delivered to Party 1 were of Deep Dish variety, what was the total bill for Party 1?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college

 

 

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 120

Bhama got calls from all colleges. What could be the minimum aggregate marks obtained by her?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college

 

 

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 121

Charlie got calls from two colleges. What could be the minimum marks obtained by him in a section?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

For admission to various affiliated colleges, a university conducts a written test with four different sections, each with a maximum of 50 marks. The following table gives the aggregate as well as the sectional cut-off marks fixed by six different colleges affiliated to the university. A student will get admission only if he/she gets marks greater than or equal to the cut-off marks in each of the sections and his/her aggregate marks are at least equal to the aggregate cut-off marks as specified by the college

 

 

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 122

Aditya did not get a call from even a single college. What could be the maximum aggregate marks obtained by him?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.

Stage-I:

• One team won all the three matches.

• Two teams lost all the matches.

• D lost to A but won against C and F.

• E lost to B but won against C and F.

• B lost at least one match.

• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.

Stage-II:

The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.

• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.

• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 123

The two teams that defeated the leader of Stage-I are: 

Comprehension

Directions for Questions:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.

Stage-I:

• One team won all the three matches.

• Two teams lost all the matches.

• D lost to A but won against C and F.

• E lost to B but won against C and F.

• B lost at least one match.

• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.

Stage-II:

• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.

• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.

• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 124

The only team(s) that won both matches in Stage-II is (are):

Comprehension

Directions for Questions:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.

Stage-I:

• One team won all the three matches.

• Two teams lost all the matches.

• D lost to A but won against C and F.

• E lost to B but won against C and F.

• B lost at least one match.

• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.

Stage-II:

• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.

• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.

• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 125

The teams that won exactly two matches in the event are:

Comprehension

Directions for Questions:

Answer the following questions based on the information given below: In a sports event, six teams (A, B, C, D, E and F) are competing against each other. Matches are scheduled in two stages. Each team plays three matches in stage – I and two matches in Stage – II. No team plays against the same team more than once in the event. No ties are permitted in any of the matches. The observations after the completion of Stage – I and Stage – II are as given below.

Stage-I:

• One team won all the three matches.

• Two teams lost all the matches.

• D lost to A but won against C and F.

• E lost to B but won against C and F.

• B lost at least one match.

• F did not play against the top team of Stage-I.

Stage-II:

• The leader of Stage-I lost the next two matches.

• Of the two teams at the bottom after Stage-I, one team won both matches, while the other lost both matches.

• One more team lost both matches in Stage-II.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 126

The team(s) with the most wins in the event is (are): 

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 127

For a recuperating patient, the doctor recommended a diet containing 10% minerals and at least 30% protein. In how many different ways can we prepare this diet by mixing at least two ingredients?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 128

Which among the following is the formulation having the lowest cost per unit for a diet having 10% fat and at least 30% protein? (The diet has to be formed by mixing two ingredients).

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 129

In what proportion P, Q and S should be mixed to make a diet having at least 60% carbohydrate at the lowest cost per unit?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A health-drink company’s R&D department is trying to make various diet formulations, which can be used for certain specific purposes. It is considering a choice of 5 alternative ingredients (O, P, Q, R, and S), which can be used in different proportions in the formulations. The table below gives the composition of these ingredients. The cost per unit of each of these ingredients is O: 150, P: 50. Q: 200, R: 500, S: 100.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 130

The company is planning to launch a balanced diet required for growth needs of adolescent children. This diet must contain at least 30% each of carbohydrate and protein, no more than 25% fat and at least 5% minerals. Which one of the following combinations of equally mixed ingredients is feasible?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

 

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 131

A US citizen is hurt in an accident and requires an angioplasty, hip replacement and a knee replacement. Cost of foreign travel and stay is not a consideration since the government will take care of it. Which country will result in the cheapest package, taking cost of poor quality into account?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

 

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 132

Taking the cost of poor quality into account, which country/countries will be the most expensive for knee replacement?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

 

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 133

Approximately, what difference in amount in Bahts will it make to a Thai citizen if she were to get a hysterectomy done in India instead of in her native country, taking into account the cost of poor quality? (It costs 7500 Bahts for one-way travel between Thailand and India).

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

The Table below shows the comparative costs, in US Dollars, of major surgeries in USA and a select few Asian countries.

The equivalent of one US Dollar in the local currencies is given below:

A consulting firm found that the quality of the health services were not the same in all the countries above. A poor quality of a surgery may have significant repercussions in future, resulting in more cost in correcting mistakes. The cost of poor quality of surgery is given in the table below:

 

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 134

The rupee value increases to Rs.35 for a US Dollar, and all other things including quality, remain the same. What is the approximate difference in cost, in US Dollars, between Singapore and India for a Spinal Fusion, taking this change into account?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 135

What is the lowest price, in rupees, a passenger has to pay for travelling by the shortest route from A to J?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 136

The company plans to introduce a direct flight between A and J. The market research results indicate that all its existing passengers travelling between A and J will use this direct flight if it is priced 5% below the minimum price that they pay at present. What should the company charge approximately, in rupees, for this direct flight?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 137

If the airports C, D and H are closed down owing to security reasons, then what would be the minimum price, in rupees, to be paid by a passenger travelling from A to J?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 138

If the prices include a margin of 10% over the total cost that the company incurs, then what is the minimum cost per kilometer that the company incurs in flying from A to J?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions : Answer the following questions based on the information given below:

A low-cost airline company connects ten Indian cities, A to J. The table below gives the distance between a pair of airports and the corresponding price charged by the company. Travel is permitted only from a departure airport to an arrival airport. The customers do not travel by a route where they have to stop at more than two intermediate airports.

CAT/2007(DILR)

Question. 139

If the prices include a margin of 15% over the total cost that the company incurs, then which among the following is the distance to be covered in flying from A to J that minimizes the total cost per kilometer for the company?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 140

How much did Dipan get in English Paper II?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 141

Among the top ten students, how many boys scored at least 95 in at least one paper from each of the groups?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 142

Had Joseph, Agni, Pritam and Tirna each obtained Group Score of 100 in the Social Science Group, then their standing in decreasing order of final score would be:

Comprehension

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 143

Students who obtained Group Scores of at least 95 in every group are eligible to apply for a prize. Among those who are eligible, the student obtaining the highest Group Score in Social Science Group is awarded this prize. The prize was awarded to:

Comprehension

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Answer questions on the basis of the information given below:

In a Class X Board examination, ten papers are distributed over five Groups - PCB, Mathematics, Social Science, Vernacular and English. Each of the ten papers is evaluated out of 100. The final score of a student is calculated in the following manner. First, the Group Scores are obtained by averaging marks in the papers within the Group. The final score is the simple average of the Group Scores. The data for the top ten students are presented below. (Dipan's score in English Paper II has been intentionally removed in the table.)

Note: B or G against the name of a student respectively indicates whether the student is a boy or a girl.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 144

Each of the ten students was allowed to improve his/her score in exactly one paper of choice with the objective of maximizing his/her final score. Everyone scored 100 in the paper in which he or she chose to improve. After that, the topper among the ten students was:

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 145

How many states have a per capita production of rice (defined as total rice production divided by its population) greater than Gujarat?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 146

An intensive rice producing state is defined as one whose annual rice production per million of I population is at least 400,000 tons. How many states are intensive rice producing states?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The table below reports annual statistics to rice production in select states of India for a particular year

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 147

Which two states account for the highest productivity of rice (tons produced per hectare of rice ,cultivation)?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below

Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 148

University 1 can belong to

Comprehension

Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below

Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 149

To which country does University 5 belong?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below

Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 150

Visitors from how many universities from UK visited Prof. Singh’s homepage in the three days?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: These questions are based on the table and information given below

Answer the Question on the basis of the information given below. Prof. Singh has been tracking the number of visitors to his homepage. His service provider has provided him with the following data on the country of origin of the visitors and the university they belong to :

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 151

Which among the listed countries can possibly host three of the eight listed universities?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 152

Three of the following four pairs of countries have identical levels of dissimilarity. Which pair is the odd one out?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 153

Which amongst the following countries is most dissimilar to India?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 154

Which of the following countries is least dissimilar to India?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below

A study was conducted to ascertain the relative importance that employees in five different countries assigned to five different traits in their Chief Executive Officers. The traits were compassion (C), decisiveness (D), negotiation skills (N), public visibility (P), and vision (V). The level of dissimilarity between two countries is the maximum difference in the ranks allotted by the two countries to any of the five traits. The following table indicates the rank order of the five traits for each country.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 155

Which of the following pairs of countries are most dissimilar?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.

Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.

(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.

(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 156

In Operation, Tara could have received the same grade as

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.

Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.

(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.

(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 157

What grade did Preeti obtain in Statistics?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.

Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.

(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.

(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 158

What grade did Utkarsh obtain in Finance?

Comprehension

Directions for Question: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below.

The Dean’s office recently scanned student results into the central computer system. When their character reading software cannot read something, it leaves that space blank. The scanner output reads as follows :

In the grading system, A, B, C, D, and F grades fetch 6, 4, 3, 2 and 0 grade points respectively. The Grade Point Average (GPA) is the arithmetic mean of the grade points obtained in the five subjects. For example Nisha’s GPA is (6 + 2 + 4 + 6 + 0) / 5 = 3.6.

Some additional facts are also known about the students’ grades. These are

(a) Vipul obtained the same grade in marketing as Aparna obtained in Finance and Strategy.

(b) Fazal obtained the same grade in Strategy as Utkarsh did in Marketing.

(c) Tara received the same grade in exactly three courses.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 159

In Strategy, Gowri’s grade point was higher than that obtain by

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 160

Statement A: The percentage of absentees in the written test among females decreased from 2002 to 2003

Statement B: The percentage of absentees in the written test among males was larger than among females in 2003.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 161

Statement A : In 2002 the number of females selected for the course as a proportion of the number of females who bought application forms, was higher than the corresponding proportion for males

Statement B: In 2002 among those called for interview, males had a greater success rate than females

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In each question, there are two statements : A and B, either of which can be true or false on the basis of the information given below. A research agency collected the following data regarding the admission process of a reputed management school in India.

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 162

Statement A : The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for males was worse than for females in 2003

Statement B: The success rate of moving from written test to interview stage for females was better in 2002 than in 2003

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 163

Among the children older than 6 years but not exceeding 12 years, how many weigh more than 38 kg?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 164

How many children of age more than 10 years are taller than 150 cm. and do not weigh more than 48 kg?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

Table A below provides data about ages of children in a school. For the age given in the first column, the second column gives the number of children not exceeding that age. For example, first entry indicates that there are 9 children aged 4 years or less. Tables B and C provide data on the heights and weights respectively of the same group of children in a similar format. Assuming that an older child is always taller and weighs more than a younger child, answer the following questions.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 165

What is the number of children of age 9 years or less whose height does not exceed 135 cm?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

An industry comprises four firms ( A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales .

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 166

Which firm has the highest profitability

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below

An industry comprises four firms ( A, B, C, and D). Financial details of these firms and of the industry as a whole for a particular year are given below. Profitability of a firm is defined as profit as a percentage of sales .

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 167

If Firm A acquires Firm B, approximately what percentage of the total market (total sales ) will they corner together

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 168

How many schools in the list above have single digit rankings on at least 3 of the 4 parameters (overall ranking, ranking by academics, ranking by recruiters and ranking by placement)

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 169

In terms of starting salary and tution fee, how many schools are uniformly better (higher median starting salary AND lower annual tution fee) than Dartmouth College?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 170

Madhu has received admission in all schools listed above. She wishes to select the highest overll ranked school whose a) annual tution fee does not exceed $ 23, 000 and b) median starting salary is at least $ 70, 000. Which school will she select?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 171

The percentage of respondents that fall into the 35 to 40 years age group (both inclusive) is at least

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 172

Given the information above, the percentage of respondents older than 35 can be at most

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The table below provides certain demographic details of 30 respondents who were part of a survey. The demographic characteristics are : gender, number of children and age of respondents. The first number in each cell is the number of repondents in that group. The minimum and maxinum age of respondents in each group is given in brackets. For example, there are five female respondents with no children and among these five, the youngest is 34 years old, while the oldest is 49.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 173

The percentage of respondents aged less than 40 years is at least

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 174

In the financial category, the number of spam emails received in September 2002 as compared to March

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 175

In the health category, the number of spam emails received in December 2002 as compared to June 2003

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Spam that enters our electronic mailboxes can be classified under several spam heads. The following table shows the distribution of such spam worldwide over time. The total number of spam emails received during December 2002 was larger than the number received in June 2003. The Figures in the table represent the perecentage of all spam emails received during that period, falling into respective categories.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 176

In which category was the percentage of spam emails increasing but at a decreasing rate?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 177

In the consolidated list, what would be the overall rank of the Philippines?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 178

In the consolidated list, how many countries would rank below Spain and above Taiwan?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 179

In the consolidated list, which country ranks 37th?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

Below is a table that lists countries region - wise. Each region - wise list is sorted, first by birth rate and then alphabetically by name of country. We now wish to merge the region - wise list into one consolidated list and provide overall rankings to each country based first on birth rate and then on death rate. Thus, if some countries have the same birth rate, then the country with a lower death rate will be ranked higher. Further, countries having identical birth and death rates will get the same rank. For example, if two countries are tied for the third position, then both will be given rank 3, while the next country (in the ordered list) will be ranked 5.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 180

In the consolidated list, how many countries in Asia will rank lower then every country in South America, but higher than at least one country in Africa?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 181

The athletes from FRG and USA decided to run a 4 × 100 m relay race for their respective countries with the country having three athletes borrowing the athlete from CZE. Assume that all the athletes ran their stretch of the relay race at the same speed as in Decathlon event. How much more time did the FRG relay team take as compared to the USA team?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 182

What is the least Daley Thompson must get in Score-2 that ensures him a bronze medal?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

In a Decathlon, the events are 100m, 400m, 100m hurdles, 1500m, High jump, Pole-vault, Long jump, Discus, Shot Put and Javelin. The performance in the first four of these events is consolidated into Score-1, the next three into Score-2, and the last three into Score3. Each such consolidation is obtained by giving appropriate positive weights to individual events. The final score is simply the total of these three scores. The athletes with the highest, second highest and the third highest final scores receive the gold, silver and bronze medals, respectively. The table below gives the scores and performances of nineteen top athletes in this event.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 183

At least how many competitors (excluding Daley Thompson) must Michael Smith have out-jumped in the long jump event?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 184

Let us suppose that one bag of cement (50 kgs) consumes 100 kgs of limestone and 10 units of power. The only other cost item in producing cement is in the form of wages. During 1993-94, limestone, power and wages contributed, respectively, 20%, 25%, and 15% to the cement price per bag. The average operating profit (% of price per cement bag) earned by a cement manufacturer during 2002-03 is closest to

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 185

Steel manufacturing requires the use of iron ore, power and manpower. The cost of iron ore has followed the All Items index. During 1993-94 power accounted for 30% of the selling price of steel, iron ore for 25%, and wages for 10% of the selling price of steel. Assuming the cost and price data for cement as given in the previous question, the operating profit (% of selling price) of an average steel manufacturer in 2002-03

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 186

Which item experienced continuous price rise during the ten-year period?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below.

The following is the wholesale price index (WPI) of a select list of items with the base year of 1993-94. In other words, all the item prices are made 100 in that year (1993-94). Prices in all other years for an item are measured with respect to its price in the base year. For instance, the price of cement went up by 1% in 1994-95 as compared to 1993-94. Similarly, the price of power went up by 3% in 1996-97 as compared to 1993-94.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 187

Which item(s) experienced only one decline in price during the ten-year period?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: These questions are based on the table and information given below:

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 188

Each of the following statements pertains to the number of states with females outnumbering males in a given census year. Which of these statements in NOT correct?