CAT DILR Questions | CAT Analytical Reasoning questions

This section contains CAT Past Year Questions based on ANALYTICAL REASONING — Arrangement; Conditional Analysis; Relationships and Associations; Categorisation; Optimisation; Mathematical Reasoning; Decision Making. CAT Analytical Reasoning | CAT Past Year DILR Questions

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

 

 Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.

CAT/2022.2(DILR)

Question. 1

If the last location visited is Ahmednagar, then what is the total distance covered in the route (in km)?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

 

 Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.

CAT/2022.2(DILR)

Question. 2

If the total number of widgets delivered in a day is 250 units, then what is the total distance covered in the route (in km)?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

 

 Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.

CAT/2022.2(DILR)

Question. 3

What is the chance that the total number of widgets delivered in a day is 260 units and the route ends at Bikrampore?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

 

 Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.

CAT/2022.2(DILR)

Question. 4

If the first location visited from the warehouse is Ahmednagar, then what is the chance that the total distance covered in the route is 40 km?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar (A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

 

 Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.

CAT/2022.2(DILR)

Question. 5

If Ahmednagar is not the first location to be visited in a route and the total route distance is 29 km, then which of the following is a possible number of widgets delivered on that day?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives a funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000. Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000. The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 6

How many tokens did Qahira receive?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives a funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000. Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000. The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 7

Who among the following definitely received a token from Bithi but not from Dhanavi?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives a funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000. Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000. The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 8

How many tokens did Chhaya award?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives a funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000. Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000. The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 9

How many tokens did Smera receive?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Adhara, Bithi, Chhaya, Dhanavi, Esther, and Fathima are the interviewers in a process that awards funding for new initiatives. Every interviewer individually interviews each of the candidates individually and awards a token only if she recommends funding. A token has a face value of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, or 13. Each interviewer awards tokens of a single face value only. Once all six interviews are over for a candidate, the candidate receives a funding that is Rs.1000 times the product of the face values of all the tokens. For example, if a candidate has tokens with face values 2, 5, and 7, then they get a funding of Rs.1000 × (2 × 5 × 7) = Rs.70,000. Pragnyaa, Qahira, Rasheeda, Smera, and Tantra were five candidates who received funding. The funds they received, in descending order, were Rs.390,000, Rs.210,000, Rs.165,000, Rs.77,000, and Rs.66,000. The following additional facts are known:

1. Fathima awarded tokens to everyone except Qahira, while Adhara awarded tokens to no one except Pragnyaa.

2. Rashida received the highest number of tokens that anyone received, but she did not receive one from Esther.

3. Bithi awarded a token to Smera but not to Qahira, while Dhanavi awarded a token to Qahira but not to Smera.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 10

Which of the following could be the amount of funding that Tantra received?

(a) Rs. 66,000

(b) Rs. 165,000

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are 15 girls and some boys among the graduating students in a class. They are planning a get-together, which can be either a 1-day event, or a 2-day event, or a 3-day event. There are 6 singers in the class, 4 of them are boys. There are 10 dancers in the class, 4 of them are girls. No dancer in the class is a singer. Some students are not interested in attending the get-together. Those students who are interested in attending a 3-day event are also interested in attending a 2-day event; those who are interested in attending a 2-day event are also interested in attending a 1-day event. The following facts are also known:

1. All the girls and 80% of the boys are interested in attending a 1-day event. 60% of the boys are interested in attending a 2-day event.

2. Some of the girls are interested in attending a 1-day event, but not a 2-day event; some of the other girls are interested in attending both.

3. 70% of the boys who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers. 60% of the girls who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers.

4. No girl is interested in attending a 3-day event. All male singers and 2 of the dancers are interested in attending a 3-day event.

5. The number of singers interested in attending a 2-day event is one more than the number of dancers interested in attending a 2-day event.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 11

How many boys are there in the class?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are 15 girls and some boys among the graduating students in a class. They are planning a get-together, which can be either a 1-day event, or a 2-day event, or a 3-day event. There are 6 singers in the class, 4 of them are boys. There are 10 dancers in the class, 4 of them are girls. No dancer in the class is a singer. Some students are not interested in attending the get-together. Those students who are interested in attending a 3-day event are also interested in attending a 2-day event; those who are interested in attending a 2-day event are also interested in attending a 1-day event. The following facts are also known:

1. All the girls and 80% of the boys are interested in attending a 1-day event. 60% of the boys are interested in attending a 2-day event.

2. Some of the girls are interested in attending a 1-day event, but not a 2-day event; some of the other girls are interested in attending both.

3. 70% of the boys who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers. 60% of the girls who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers.

4. No girl is interested in attending a 3-day event. All male singers and 2 of the dancers are interested in attending a 3-day event.

5. The number of singers interested in attending a 2-day event is one more than the number of dancers interested in attending a 2-day event.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 12

Which of the following can be determined from the given information?

I. The number of boys who are interested in attending a 1-day event and are neither dancers nor singers.

II. The number of female dancers who are interested in attending a 1-day event.

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are 15 girls and some boys among the graduating students in a class. They are planning a get-together, which can be either a 1-day event, or a 2-day event, or a 3-day event. There are 6 singers in the class, 4 of them are boys. There are 10 dancers in the class, 4 of them are girls. No dancer in the class is a singer. Some students are not interested in attending the get-together. Those students who are interested in attending a 3-day event are also interested in attending a 2-day event; those who are interested in attending a 2-day event are also interested in attending a 1-day event. The following facts are also known:

1. All the girls and 80% of the boys are interested in attending a 1-day event. 60% of the boys are interested in attending a 2-day event.

2. Some of the girls are interested in attending a 1-day event, but not a 2-day event; some of the other girls are interested in attending both.

3. 70% of the boys who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers. 60% of the girls who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers.

4. No girl is interested in attending a 3-day event. All male singers and 2 of the dancers are interested in attending a 3-day event.

5. The number of singers interested in attending a 2-day event is one more than the number of dancers interested in attending a 2-day event.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 13

What fraction of the class are interested in attending a 2-day event?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are 15 girls and some boys among the graduating students in a class. They are planning a get-together, which can be either a 1-day event, or a 2-day event, or a 3-day event. There are 6 singers in the class, 4 of them are boys. There are 10 dancers in the class, 4 of them are girls. No dancer in the class is a singer. Some students are not interested in attending the get-together. Those students who are interested in attending a 3-day event are also interested in attending a 2-day event; those who are interested in attending a 2-day event are also interested in attending a 1-day event. The following facts are also known:

1. All the girls and 80% of the boys are interested in attending a 1-day event. 60% of the boys are interested in attending a 2-day event.

2. Some of the girls are interested in attending a 1-day event, but not a 2-day event; some of the other girls are interested in attending both.

3. 70% of the boys who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers. 60% of the girls who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers.

4. No girl is interested in attending a 3-day event. All male singers and 2 of the dancers are interested in attending a 3-day event.

5. The number of singers interested in attending a 2-day event is one more than the number of dancers interested in attending a 2-day event.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 14

What BEST can be concluded about the number of male dancers who are interested in attending a 1-day event?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

There are 15 girls and some boys among the graduating students in a class. They are planning a get-together, which can be either a 1-day event, or a 2-day event, or a 3-day event. There are 6 singers in the class, 4 of them are boys. There are 10 dancers in the class, 4 of them are girls. No dancer in the class is a singer. Some students are not interested in attending the get-together. Those students who are interested in attending a 3-day event are also interested in attending a 2-day event; those who are interested in attending a 2-day event are also interested in attending a 1-day event. The following facts are also known:

1. All the girls and 80% of the boys are interested in attending a 1-day event. 60% of the boys are interested in attending a 2-day event.

2. Some of the girls are interested in attending a 1-day event, but not a 2-day event; some of the other girls are interested in attending both.

3. 70% of the boys who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers. 60% of the girls who are interested in attending a 2-day event are neither singers nor dancers.

4. No girl is interested in attending a 3-day event. All male singers and 2 of the dancers are interested in attending a 3-day event.

5. The number of singers interested in attending a 2-day event is one more than the number of dancers interested in attending a 2-day event.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 15

How many female dancers are interested in attending a 2-day event?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The management of a university hockey team was evaluating performance of four women players - Amla, Bimla, Harita and Sarita for their possible selection in the university team for next year. For this purpose, the management was looking at the number of goals scored by them in the past 8 matches, numbered 1 through 8. The four players together had scored a total of 12 goals in these matches. In the 8 matches, each of them had scored at least one goal. No two players had scored the same total number of goals. The following facts are known about the goals scored by these four players only. All the questions refer only to the goals scored by these four players.

1. Only one goal was scored in every even numbered match.

2. Harita scored more goals than Bimla.

3. The highest goal scorer scored goals in exactly 3 matches including Match 4 and Match 8.

4. Bimla scored a goal in Match 1 and one each in three other consecutive matches.

5. An equal number of goals were scored in Match 3 and Match 7, which was different from the number of goals scored in either Match 1 or Match 5.

6. The match in which the highest number of goals was scored was unique and it was not Match 5.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 16

How many goals were scored in Match 7?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The management of a university hockey team was evaluating performance of four women players - Amla, Bimla, Harita and Sarita for their possible selection in the university team for next year. For this purpose, the management was looking at the number of goals scored by them in the past 8 matches, numbered 1 through 8. The four players together had scored a total of 12 goals in these matches. In the 8 matches, each of them had scored at least one goal. No two players had scored the same total number of goals. The following facts are known about the goals scored by these four players only. All the questions refer only to the goals scored by these four players.

1. Only one goal was scored in every even numbered match.

2. Harita scored more goals than Bimla.

3. The highest goal scorer scored goals in exactly 3 matches including Match 4 and Match 8.

4. Bimla scored a goal in Match 1 and one each in three other consecutive matches.

5. An equal number of goals were scored in Match 3 and Match 7, which was different from the number of goals scored in either Match 1 or Match 5.

6. The match in which the highest number of goals was scored was unique and it was not Match 5.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 17

Which of the following is the correct sequence of goals scored in matches 1, 3, 5 and 7?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The management of a university hockey team was evaluating performance of four women players - Amla, Bimla, Harita and Sarita for their possible selection in the university team for next year. For this purpose, the management was looking at the number of goals scored by them in the past 8 matches, numbered 1 through 8. The four players together had scored a total of 12 goals in these matches. In the 8 matches, each of them had scored at least one goal. No two players had scored the same total number of goals. The following facts are known about the goals scored by these four players only. All the questions refer only to the goals scored by these four players.

1. Only one goal was scored in every even numbered match.

2. Harita scored more goals than Bimla.

3. The highest goal scorer scored goals in exactly 3 matches including Match 4 and Match 8.

4. Bimla scored a goal in Match 1 and one each in three other consecutive matches.

5. An equal number of goals were scored in Match 3 and Match 7, which was different from the number of goals scored in either Match 1 or Match 5.

6. The match in which the highest number of goals was scored was unique and it was not Match 5.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 18

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

Statement-1: Amla and Sarita never scored goals in the same match.

Statement-2: Harita and Sarita never scored goals in the same match.

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The management of a university hockey team was evaluating performance of four women players - Amla, Bimla, Harita and Sarita for their possible selection in the university team for next year. For this purpose, the management was looking at the number of goals scored by them in the past 8 matches, numbered 1 through 8. The four players together had scored a total of 12 goals in these matches. In the 8 matches, each of them had scored at least one goal. No two players had scored the same total number of goals. The following facts are known about the goals scored by these four players only. All the questions refer only to the goals scored by these four players.

1. Only one goal was scored in every even numbered match.

2. Harita scored more goals than Bimla.

3. The highest goal scorer scored goals in exactly 3 matches including Match 4 and Match 8.

4. Bimla scored a goal in Match 1 and one each in three other consecutive matches.

5. An equal number of goals were scored in Match 3 and Match 7, which was different from the number of goals scored in either Match 1 or Match 5.

6. The match in which the highest number of goals was scored was unique and it was not Match 5.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 19

Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?

Statement-1: In every match at least one player scored a goal.

Statement-2: No two players scored goals in the same number of matches.

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The management of a university hockey team was evaluating performance of four women players - Amla, Bimla, Harita and Sarita for their possible selection in the university team for next year. For this purpose, the management was looking at the number of goals scored by them in the past 8 matches, numbered 1 through 8. The four players together had scored a total of 12 goals in these matches. In the 8 matches, each of them had scored at least one goal. No two players had scored the same total number of goals. The following facts are known about the goals scored by these four players only. All the questions refer only to the goals scored by these four players.

1. Only one goal was scored in every even numbered match.

2. Harita scored more goals than Bimla.

3. The highest goal scorer scored goals in exactly 3 matches including Match 4 and Match 8.

4. Bimla scored a goal in Match 1 and one each in three other consecutive matches.

5. An equal number of goals were scored in Match 3 and Match 7, which was different from the number of goals scored in either Match 1 or Match 5.

6. The match in which the highest number of goals was scored was unique and it was not Match 5.

CAT/2022.1(DILR)

Question. 20

If Harita scored goals in one more match as compared to Sarita, which of the following statement(s) is/are necessarily true?

Statement-1: Amla scored goals in consecutive matches.

Statement-2: Sarita scored goals in consecutive matches.

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The game of Chango is a game where two people play against each other; one of them wins and the other loses, i.e., there are no drawn Chango games. 12 players participated in a Chango championship. They were divided into four groups: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.
Players within each group had a distinct rank going into the championship. The players have NOT been listed necessarily according to their ranks. In the group stage of the game, the second and third ranked players play against each other, and the winner of that game plays against the first ranked player of the group. The winner of this second game is considered as the winner of the group and enters a semi-final.
The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final. The winners of the two semi-finals play against each other in the final to decide the winner of the championship. 

It is known that:

  1. Chitra did not win the championship.
  2. Aruna did not play against Arif. Brij did not play against Brinda.
  3. Aruna, Biju, Chitra, and Dipen played three games each, Azul and Chetan played two games each, and the remaining players played one game each.

 

 

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 21

Who among the following was DEFINITELY NOT ranked first in his/her group?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The game of Chango is a game where two people play against each other; one of them wins and the other loses, i.e., there are no drawn Chango games. 12 players participated in a Chango championship. They were divided into four groups: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.
Players within each group had a distinct rank going into the championship. The players have NOT been listed necessarily according to their ranks. In the group stage of the game, the second and third ranked players play against each other, and the winner of that game plays against the first ranked player of the group. The winner of this second game is considered as the winner of the group and enters a semi-final.
The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final. The winners of the two semi-finals play against each other in the final to decide the winner of the championship. 

It is known that:

  1. Chitra did not win the championship.
  2. Aruna did not play against Arif. Brij did not play against Brinda.
  3. Aruna, Biju, Chitra, and Dipen played three games each, Azul and Chetan played two games each, and the remaining players played one game each.

 

 

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 22

Which of the following pairs must have played against each other in the championship?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The game of Chango is a game where two people play against each other; one of them wins and the other loses, i.e., there are no drawn Chango games. 12 players participated in a Chango championship. They were divided into four groups: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.
Players within each group had a distinct rank going into the championship. The players have NOT been listed necessarily according to their ranks. In the group stage of the game, the second and third ranked players play against each other, and the winner of that game plays against the first ranked player of the group. The winner of this second game is considered as the winner of the group and enters a semi-final.
The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final. The winners of the two semi-finals play against each other in the final to decide the winner of the championship. 

It is known that:

  1. Chitra did not win the championship.
  2. Aruna did not play against Arif. Brij did not play against Brinda.
  3. Aruna, Biju, Chitra, and Dipen played three games each, Azul and Chetan played two games each, and the remaining players played one game each.

 

 

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 23

Who won the championship?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The game of Chango is a game where two people play against each other; one of them wins and the other loses, i.e., there are no drawn Chango games. 12 players participated in a Chango championship. They were divided into four groups: Group A consisted of Aruna, Azul, and Arif; Group B consisted of Brinda, Brij, and Biju; Group C consisted of Chitra, Chetan, and Chhavi; and Group D consisted of Dipen, Donna, and Deb.
Players within each group had a distinct rank going into the championship. The players have NOT been listed necessarily according to their ranks. In the group stage of the game, the second and third ranked players play against each other, and the winner of that game plays against the first ranked player of the group. The winner of this second game is considered as the winner of the group and enters a semi-final.
The winners from Groups A and B play against each other in one semi-final, while the winners from Groups C and D play against each other in the other semi-final. The winners of the two semi-finals play against each other in the final to decide the winner of the championship. 

It is known that:

  1. Chitra did not win the championship.
  2. Aruna did not play against Arif. Brij did not play against Brinda.
  3. Aruna, Biju, Chitra, and Dipen played three games each, Azul and Chetan played two games each, and the remaining players played one game each.

 

 

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 24

Who among the following did NOT play against Chitra in the championship?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 25

What was the minimum rating that Ravi received from any customer in any parameter?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 26

The COMPLETE list of customers who gave the maximum total rating points to Ravi is

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 27

What rating did Atal give on Timeliness?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 28

What BEST can be concluded about the tip amount given by Deepak?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 29

In which parameter did Atal give the maximum rating points to Ravi?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

Ravi works in an online food-delivery company. After each delivery, customers rate Ravi on each of four parameters – Behaviour, Packaging, Hygiene, and Timeliness, on a scale from 1 to 9. If the total of the four rating points is 25 or more, then Ravi gets a bonus of ₹20 for that delivery. Additionally, a customer may or may not give Ravi a tip. If the customer gives a tip, it is either ₹30 or ₹50.
One day, Ravi made four deliveries - one to each of Atal, Bihari, Chirag and Deepak, and received a total of ₹120 in bonus and tips. He did not get both a bonus and a tip from the same customer.
The following additional facts are also known.

 

  1. In Timeliness, Ravi received a total of 21 points, and three of the customers gave him the same rating points in this parameter. Atal gave higher rating points than Bihari and Chirag in this parameter.
  2. Ravi received distinct rating points in Packaging from the four customers adding up to 29 points. Similarly, Ravi received distinct rating points in Hygiene from the four customers adding up to 26 points.
  3. Chirag gave the same rating points for Packaging and Hygiene.
  4. Among the four customers, Bihari gave the highest rating points in Packaging, and Chirag gave the highest rating points in Hygiene.
  5. Everyone rated Ravi between 5 and 7 in Behaviour. Unique maximum and minimum ratings in this parameter were given by Atal and Deepak respectively.
  6. If the customers are ranked based on ratings given by them in individual parameters, then Atal’s rank based on Packaging is the same as that based on Hygiene. This is also true for Deepak.

CAT/2021.2(DILR)

Question. 30

What rating did Deepak give on Packaging?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 31

How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Amal?

Explanation

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 32

How many questions were DEFINITELY created by Komal?

Explanation

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 33

How many questions were DEFINITELY created by the SMEs?

Explanation

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 34

How many questions were DEFINITELY disapproved by Bimal?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 35

The approval ratio of a reviewer is the ratio of the number of questions (s)he approved to the number of questions (s)he reviewed. Which option best describes Amal’s approval ratio?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Three reviewers Amal, Bimal, and Komal are tasked with selecting questions from a pool of 13 questions (Q01 to Q13). Questions can be created by external “subject matter experts” (SMEs) or by one of the three reviewers. Each of the reviewers either approves or disapproves a question that is shown to them. Their decisions lead to eventual acceptance or rejection of the question in the manner described below.
If a question is created by an SME, it is reviewed first by Amal, and then by Bimal. If both of them approve the question, then the question is accepted and is not reviewed by Komal. If both disapprove the question, it is rejected and is not reviewed by Komal. If one of them approves the question and the other disapproves it, then the question is reviewed by Komal. Then the question is accepted only if she approves it.
A question created by one of the reviewers is decided upon by the other two. If a question is created by Amal, then it is first reviewed by Bimal. If Bimal approves the question, then it is accepted. Otherwise, it is reviewed by Komal. The question is then accepted only if Komal approves it. A similar process is followed for questions created by Bimal, whose questions are first reviewed by Komal, and then by Amal only if Komal disapproves it. Questions created by Komal are first reviewed by Amal, and then, if required, by Bimal.


The following facts are known about the review process after its completion. 

  1. Q02, Q06, Q09, Q11, and Q12 were rejected and the other questions were accepted.
  2. Amal reviewed only Q02, Q03, Q04, Q06, Q08, Q10, Q11, and Q13.
  3. Bimal reviewed only Q02, Q04, Q06 through Q09, Q12, and Q13.
  4. Komal reviewed only Q01 through Q05, Q07, Q08, Q09, Q11, and Q12.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 36

How many questions created by Amal or Bimal were disapproved by at least one of the other reviewers?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Each of the bottles mentioned in this question contains 50 ml of liquid. The liquid in any bottle can be 100% pure content (P) or can have certain amount of impurity (I). Visually it is not possible to distinguish between P and I. There is a testing device which detects impurity, as long as the percentage of impurity in the content tested is 10% or more.
For example, suppose bottle 1 contains only P, and bottle 2 contains 80% P and 20% I. If content from bottle 1 is tested, it will be found out that it contains only P. If content of bottle 2 is tested, the test will reveal that it contains some amount of I. If 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 20 ml content from bottle 2, the test will show that the mixture has impurity, and hence we can conclude that at least one of the two bottles has I. However, if 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle 2. the test will not detect any impurity in the resultant mixture.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 37

5 ml of content from bottle A is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle B. The resultant mixture, when tested, detects the presence of I. If it is known that bottle A contains only P, what BEST can be concluded about the volume of I in bottle B?

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Each of the bottles mentioned in this question contains 50 ml of liquid. The liquid in any bottle can be 100% pure content (P) or can have certain amount of impurity (I). Visually it is not possible to distinguish between P and I. There is a testing device which detects impurity, as long as the percentage of impurity in the content tested is 10% or more.
For example, suppose bottle 1 contains only P, and bottle 2 contains 80% P and 20% I. If content from bottle 1 is tested, it will be found out that it contains only P. If content of bottle 2 is tested, the test will reveal that it contains some amount of I. If 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 20 ml content from bottle 2, the test will show that the mixture has impurity, and hence we can conclude that at least one of the two bottles has I. However, if 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle 2. the test will not detect any impurity in the resultant mixture.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 38

There are four bottles. Each bottle is known to contain only P or only I. They will be considered to be “collectively ready for despatch” if all of them contain only P. In minimum how many tests, is it possible to ascertain whether these four bottles are “collectively ready for despatch”?

Explanation

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Each of the bottles mentioned in this question contains 50 ml of liquid. The liquid in any bottle can be 100% pure content (P) or can have certain amount of impurity (I). Visually it is not possible to distinguish between P and I. There is a testing device which detects impurity, as long as the percentage of impurity in the content tested is 10% or more.
For example, suppose bottle 1 contains only P, and bottle 2 contains 80% P and 20% I. If content from bottle 1 is tested, it will be found out that it contains only P. If content of bottle 2 is tested, the test will reveal that it contains some amount of I. If 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 20 ml content from bottle 2, the test will show that the mixture has impurity, and hence we can conclude that at least one of the two bottles has I. However, if 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle 2. the test will not detect any impurity in the resultant mixture.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 39

There are four bottles. It is known that three of these bottles contain only P, while the remaining one contains 80% P and 20% I. What is the minimum number of tests required to definitely identify the bottle containing some amount of I?

Explanation

Comprehension

Direction for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

Each of the bottles mentioned in this question contains 50 ml of liquid. The liquid in any bottle can be 100% pure content (P) or can have certain amount of impurity (I). Visually it is not possible to distinguish between P and I. There is a testing device which detects impurity, as long as the percentage of impurity in the content tested is 10% or more.
For example, suppose bottle 1 contains only P, and bottle 2 contains 80% P and 20% I. If content from bottle 1 is tested, it will be found out that it contains only P. If content of bottle 2 is tested, the test will reveal that it contains some amount of I. If 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 20 ml content from bottle 2, the test will show that the mixture has impurity, and hence we can conclude that at least one of the two bottles has I. However, if 10 ml of content from bottle 1 is mixed with 5 ml of content from bottle 2. the test will not detect any impurity in the resultant mixture.

CAT/2021.3(DILR)

Question. 40

There are four bottles. It is known that either one or two of these bottles contain(s) only P, while the remaining ones contain 85% P and 15% I. What is the minimum number of tests required to ascertain the exact number of bottles containing only P?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department.
 
Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00 am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots.
 
The following additional facts are also known.
 
1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots.
2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R.
3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am.
4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am.
5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot.
6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots.
7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 41

Which one of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department.
 
Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00 am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots.
 
The following additional facts are also known.
 
1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots.
2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R.
3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am.
4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am.
5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot.
6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots.
7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 42

Who all are NOT guiding any Economics students?

Comprehension

Directions for questions: Read the given instructions carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

The Humanities department of a college is planning to organize eight seminars, one for each of the eight doctoral students - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Four of them are from Economics, three from Sociology and one from Anthropology department. Each student is guided by one among P, Q, R, S and T. Two students are guided by each of P, R and T, while one student is guided by each of Q and S. Each student is guided by a guide belonging to their department.
 
Each seminar is to be scheduled in one of four consecutive 30-minute slots starting at 9:00 am, 9:30 am, 10:00 am and 10:30 am on the same day. More than one seminars can be scheduled in a slot, provided the guide is free. Only three rooms are available and hence at the most three seminars can be scheduled in a slot. Students who are guided by the same guide must be scheduled in consecutive slots.
 
The following additional facts are also known.
 
1. Seminars by students from Economics are scheduled in each of the four slots.
2. A’s is the only seminar that is scheduled at 10:00 am. A is guided by R.
3. F is an Anthropology student whose seminar is scheduled at 10:30 am.
4. The seminar of a Sociology student is scheduled at 9:00 am.
5. B and G are both Sociology students, whose seminars are scheduled in the same slot. The seminar of an Economics student, who is guided by T, is also scheduled in the same slot.
6. P, who is guiding both B and C, has students scheduled in the first two slots.
7. A and G are scheduled in two consecutive slots.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 43

Which of the following statements is necessarily true?

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 44

If D is scheduled in a slot later than Q's, then which of the following two statement(s) is(are) true?
(i) E and H are guided by T.
(ii) G is guided by Q.

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 45

If E and Q are both scheduled in the same slot, then which of the following statements BEST describes the relationship between D, H, and T?

CAT/2020.2(DILR)

Question. 46

If D is scheduled in the slot immediately before Q’s, then which of the following is NOT necessarily true?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 47

How many mango trees were there in total?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 48

Which of the following is the correct sequence of trees received by Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti in that order?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 49

How many pine trees did Chitra receive?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 50

Who got the plot with the smallest number of trees and how many trees did that plot have?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 51

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Comprehension

Directions for the Questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

A farmer had a rectangular land containing 205 trees. He distributed that land among his four daughters – Abha, Bina, Chitra and Dipti by dividing the land into twelve plots along three rows (X,Y,Z) and four Columns (1,2,3,4) as shown in the figure below:

The plots in rows X, Y, Z contained mango, teak and pine trees respectively. Each plot had trees in non-zero multiples of 3 or 4 and none of the plots had the same number of trees. Each daughter got an even number of plots. In the figure, the number mentioned in top left corner of a plot is the number of trees in that plot, while the letter in the bottom right corner is the first letter of the name of the daughter who got that plot (For example, Abha got the plot in row Y and column 1 containing 21 trees). Some information in the figure got erased, but the following is known:

1. Abha got 20 trees more than Chitra but 6 trees less than Dipti.
2. The largest number of trees in a plot was 32, but it was not with Abha.
3. The number of teak trees in Column 3 was double of that in Column 2 but was half of that in Column 4.
4. Both Abha and Bina got a higher number of plots than Dipti.
5. Only Bina, Chitra and Dipti got corner plots.
6. Dipti got two adjoining plots in the same row.
7. Bina was the only one who got a plot in each row and each column.
8. Chitra and Dipti did not get plots which were adjacent to each other (either in row / column / diagonal).
9. The number of mango trees was double the number of teak trees.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 52

Which column had the highest number of trees?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 53

What were the bids by Arun, Bankim, Charu and Dipak, respectively in the first round?

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 54

In how many rounds did Arun bid Hi?

 
 

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 55

In how many rounds did Bankim bid Lo?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 56

In how many rounds did all four players make identical bids? 

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 57

In how many rounds did Dipak gain exactly 1 point?

Explanation

Comprehension

Directions for the questions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions accordingly.

The Hi-Lo game is a four-player game played in six rounds. In every round, each player chooses to bid Hi or Lo. The bids are made simultaneously. If all four bid Hi, then all four lose 1 point each. If three players bid Hi and one bids Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 1 point each and the player bidding Lo loses 3 points. If two players bid Hi and two bid Lo, then the players bidding Hi gain 2 points each and the players bidding Lo lose 2 points each. If one player bids Hi and three bid Lo, then the player bidding Hi gains 3 points and the players bidding Lo lose 1 point each. If all four bid Lo, then all four gain 1 point each.


Four players Arun, Bankim, Charu, and Dipak played the Hi-Lo game. The following facts are known about their game:


1. At the end of three rounds, Arun had scored 6 points, Dipak had scored 2 points, Bankim and Charu had scored -2 points each.
2. At the end of six rounds, Arun had scored 7 points, Bankim and Dipak had scored -1 point each, and Charu had scored -5 points. 
3. Dipak’s score in the third round was less than his score in the first round but was more than his score in the second round.
4. In exactly two out of the six rounds, Arun was the only player who bid Hi.

CAT/2020.3(DILR)

Question. 58

In which of the following rounds, was Arun DEFINITELY the only player to bid Hi?

Comprehension

To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 59

If a ‘Heavy Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 900 mm or more, then approximately what percentage of ‘Heavy Monsoon States’ have a negative deviation from respective LPAs in 2019?

Comprehension

To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 60

If a ‘Low Monsoon State’ is defined as a state with actual rainfall from June-August, 2019 of 750 mm or less, then what is the median ‘deviation from LPA’ (as defined in the Y-axis of the figure) of ‘Low Monsoon States’?

Comprehension

To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 61

What is the average rainfall of all states that have actual rainfall of 600 mm or less in 2019 and have a negative deviation from LPA?

Comprehension

To compare the rainfall data, India Meteorological Department (IMD) calculated the Long Period Average (LPA) of rainfall during period June-August for each of the 16 states. The figure given below shows the actual rainfall (measured in mm) during June-August, 2019 and the percentage deviations from LPA of respective states in 2018. Each state along with its actual rainfall is presented in the figure.

 

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 62

The LPA of a state for a year is defined as the average rainfall in the preceding 10 years considering the period of June-August. For example, LPA in 2018 is the average rainfall during 2009-2018 and LPA in 2019 is the average rainfall during 2010-2019. It is also observed that the actual rainfall in Gujarat in 2019 is 20% more than the rainfall in 2009. The LPA of Gujarat in 2019 is closest to

Comprehension

Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8. There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4.

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 63

What is the total amount of money (in rupees) in the three pouches kept in the first column of the second row?

Explanation

Comprehension

Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8. There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4.

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 64

How many pouches contain exactly one coin?

Explanation

Comprehension

Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8. There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4.

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 65

What is the number of slots for which the average amount (in rupees) of its three pouches is an integer?

Explanation

Comprehension

Three pouches (each represented by a filled circle) are kept in each of the nine slots in a 3 × 3 grid, as shown in the figure. Every pouch has a certain number of one-rupee coins. The minimum and maximum amounts of money (in rupees) among the three pouches in each of the nine slots are given in the table. For example, we know that among the three pouches kept in the second column of the first row, the minimum amount in a pouch is Rs. 6 and the maximum amount is Rs. 8. There are nine pouches in any of the three columns, as well as in any of the three rows. It is known that the average amount of money (in rupees) kept in the nine pouches in any column or in any row is an integer. It is also known that the total amount of money kept in the three pouches in the first column of the third row is Rs. 4.

CAT/2019.2(DILR)

Question. 66

The number of slots for which the total amount in its three pouches strictly exceeds Rs. 10 is

Explanation

Comprehension

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1.The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2:1:1.
2.The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3.The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4.The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 67

What best can be said about the number of satellites serving C?

Comprehension

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1.The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2:1:1.
2.The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3.The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4.The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 68

What is the minimum possible number of satellites serving B exclusively?

Comprehension

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1.The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2:1:1.
2.The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3.The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4.The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 69

If at least 100 of the 1600 satellites were serving O, what can be said about the number of satellites serving S?

Comprehension

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes. The purposes are classified as broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1.The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio 2:1:1.
2.The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3.The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4.The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S but not B.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 70

If the number of satellites serving at least two among B, C, and S is 1200, which of the following MUST be FALSE?

Comprehension

You are given an n×n square matrix to be filled with numerals so that no two adjacent cells have the same numeral. Two cells are called adjacent if they touch each other horizontally, vertically or diagonally. So a cell in one of the four corners has three cells adjacent to it, and a cell in the first or last row or column which is not in the corner has five cells adjacent to it. Any other cell has eight cells adjacent to it.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 71

What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 3×3 square matrix? 

Explanation

Comprehension

You are given an n×n square matrix to be filled with numerals so that no two adjacent cells have the same numeral. Two cells are called adjacent if they touch each other horizontally, vertically or diagonally. So a cell in one of the four corners has three cells adjacent to it, and a cell in the first or last row or column which is not in the corner has five cells adjacent to it. Any other cell has eight cells adjacent to it.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 72

What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 5×5 square matrix? 

Explanation

Comprehension

You are given an n×n square matrix to be filled with numerals so that no two adjacent cells have the same numeral. Two cells are called adjacent if they touch each other horizontally, vertically or diagonally. So a cell in one of the four corners has three cells adjacent to it, and a cell in the first or last row or column which is not in the corner has five cells adjacent to it. Any other cell has eight cells adjacent to it.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 73

Suppose you are allowed to make one mistake, that is, one pair of adjacent cells can have the same numeral. What is the minimum number of different numerals required to fill a 5×5 matrix?

Comprehension

You are given an n×n square matrix to be filled with numerals so that no two adjacent cells have the same numeral. Two cells are called adjacent if they touch each other horizontally, vertically or diagonally. So a cell in one of the four corners has three cells adjacent to it, and a cell in the first or last row or column which is not in the corner has five cells adjacent to it. Any other cell has eight cells adjacent to it.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 74

Suppose that all the cells adjacent to any particular cell must have different numerals. What is the minimum number of different numerals needed to fill a 5×5 square matrix?

Comprehension

An ATM dispenses exactly Rs. 5000 per withdrawal using 100, 200 and 500 rupee notes. The ATM requires every customer to give her preference for one of the three denominations of notes. It then dispenses notes such that the number of notes of the customer’s preferred denomination exceeds the total number of notes of other denominations dispensed to her.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 75

In how many different ways can the ATM serve a customer who gives 500 rupee notes as her preference?

Explanation

Comprehension

An ATM dispenses exactly Rs. 5000 per withdrawal using 100, 200 and 500 rupee notes. The ATM requires every customer to give her preference for one of the three denominations of notes. It then dispenses notes such that the number of notes of the customer’s preferred denomination exceeds the total number of notes of other denominations dispensed to her.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 76

If the ATM could serve only 10 customers with a stock of fifty 500 rupee notes and a sufficient number of notes of other denominations, what is the maximum number of customers among these 10 who could have given 500 rupee notes as their preferences?

Explanation

Comprehension

An ATM dispenses exactly Rs. 5000 per withdrawal using 100, 200 and 500 rupee notes. The ATM requires every customer to give her preference for one of the three denominations of notes. It then dispenses notes such that the number of notes of the customer’s preferred denomination exceeds the total number of notes of other denominations dispensed to her.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 77

What is the maximum number of customers that the ATM can serve with a stock of fifty 500 rupee notes and a sufficient number of notes of other denominations, if all the customers are to be served with at most 20 notes per withdrawal?

Comprehension

An ATM dispenses exactly Rs. 5000 per withdrawal using 100, 200 and 500 rupee notes. The ATM requires every customer to give her preference for one of the three denominations of notes. It then dispenses notes such that the number of notes of the customer’s preferred denomination exceeds the total number of notes of other denominations dispensed to her.

CAT/2018.1(DILR)

Question. 78

What is the number of 500 rupee notes required to serve 50 customers with 500 rupee notes as their preferences and another 50 customers with 100 rupee notes as their preferences, if the total number of notes to be dispensed is the smallest possible?

Comprehension

There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 79

The brand that had the highest revenue in 2016 is:

Comprehension

There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 80

The brand that had the highest profit in 2016 is:

Comprehension

There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 81

The brand that had the highest profit in 2017 is:

Comprehension

There are only four brands of entry level smartphones called Azra, Bysi, Cxqi, and Dipq in a country. Details about their market share, unit selling price, and profitability (defined as the profit as a percentage of the revenue) for the year 2016 are given in the table below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

In 2017, sales volume of entry level smartphones grew by 40% as compared to that in 2016. Cxqi offered a 40% discount on its unit selling price in 2017, which resulted in a 15% increase in its market share. Each of the other three brands lost 5% market share. However, the profitability of Cxqi came down to half of its value in 2016. The unit selling prices of the other three brands and their profitability values remained the same in 2017 as they were in 2016.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 82

The complete list of brands whose profits went up in 2017 from 2016 is:

Comprehension

Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The following facts are known:
1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 83

Considering all companies products, which product category had the highest revenue?

Comprehension

Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The following facts are known:
1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 84

Which of the following is the correct sequence of numbers of products Bravo had in No-hope, Doubtful, Promising and Blockbuster categories respectively?

Comprehension

Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The following facts are known:
1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 85

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Comprehension

Each of the 23 boxes in the picture below represents a product manufactured by one of the following three companies: Alfa, Bravo and Charlie. The area of a box is proportional to the revenue from the corresponding product, while its centre represents the Product popularity and Market potential scores of the product (out of 20). The shadings of some of the boxes have got erased.

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The companies classified their products into four categories based on a combination of scores (out of 20) on the two parameters - Product popularity and Market potential as given below:

CAT DI LR 2018 Slot 2

The following facts are known:
1. Alfa and Bravo had the same number of products in the Blockbuster category.
2. Charlie had more products than Bravo but fewer products than Alfa in the No-hope category.
3. Each company had an equal number of products in the Promising category.
4. Charlie did not have any product in the Doubtful category, while Alfa had one product more than Bravo in this category.
5. Bravo had a higher revenue than Alfa from products in the Doubtful category.
6. Charlie had a higher revenue than Bravo from products in the Blockbuster category.
7. Bravo and Charlie had the same revenue from products in the No-hope category.
8. Alfa and Charlie had the same total revenue considering all products.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 86

If the smallest box on the grid is equivalent to revenue of Rs.1 crore, then what approximately was the total revenue of Bravo in Rs. crore?

Comprehension

The base exchange rate of a currency X with respect to a currency Y is the number of units of currency Y which is equivalent in value to one unit of currency X. Currency exchange outlets buy currency at buying exchange rates that are lower than base exchange rates, and sell currency at selling exchange rates that are higher than base exchange rates.


A currency exchange outlet uses the local currency L to buy and sell three international currencies A, B, and C, but does not exchange one international currency directly with another. The base exchange rates of A, B and C with respect to L are in the ratio 100:120:1. The buying exchange rates of each of A, B, and C with respect to L are 5% below the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange rates are 10% above their corresponding base exchange rates.

The following facts are known about the outlet on a particular day:
1. The amount of L used by the outlet to buy C equals the amount of L it received by selling C.
2. The amounts of L used by the outlet to buy A and B are in the ratio 5:3.
3. The amounts of L the outlet received from the sales of A and B are in the ratio 5:9.
4. The outlet received 88000 units of L by selling A during the day.
5. The outlet started the day with some amount of L, 2500 units of A, 4800 units of B, and 48000 units of C.
6. The outlet ended the day with some amount of L, 3300 units of A, 4800 units of B,and 51000 units of C.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 87

How many units of currency A did the outlet buy on that day? 

Explanation

Comprehension

The base exchange rate of a currency X with respect to a currency Y is the number of units of currency Y which is equivalent in value to one unit of currency X. Currency exchange outlets buy currency at buying exchange rates that are lower than base exchange rates, and sell currency at selling exchange rates that are higher than base exchange rates.


A currency exchange outlet uses the local currency L to buy and sell three international currencies A, B, and C, but does not exchange one international currency directly with another. The base exchange rates of A, B and C with respect to L are in the ratio 100:120:1. The buying exchange rates of each of A, B, and C with respect to L are 5% below the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange rates are 10% above their corresponding base exchange rates.

The following facts are known about the outlet on a particular day:
1. The amount of L used by the outlet to buy C equals the amount of L it received by selling C.
2. The amounts of L used by the outlet to buy A and B are in the ratio 5:3.
3. The amounts of L the outlet received from the sales of A and B are in the ratio 5:9.
4. The outlet received 88000 units of L by selling A during the day.
5. The outlet started the day with some amount of L, 2500 units of A, 4800 units of B, and 48000 units of C.
6. The outlet ended the day with some amount of L, 3300 units of A, 4800 units of B,and 51000 units of C.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 88

How many units of currency C did the outlet sell on that day?

Comprehension

The base exchange rate of a currency X with respect to a currency Y is the number of units of currency Y which is equivalent in value to one unit of currency X. Currency exchange outlets buy currency at buying exchange rates that are lower than base exchange rates, and sell currency at selling exchange rates that are higher than base exchange rates.


A currency exchange outlet uses the local currency L to buy and sell three international currencies A, B, and C, but does not exchange one international currency directly with another. The base exchange rates of A, B and C with respect to L are in the ratio 100:120:1. The buying exchange rates of each of A, B, and C with respect to L are 5% below the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange rates are 10% above their corresponding base exchange rates.

The following facts are known about the outlet on a particular day:
1. The amount of L used by the outlet to buy C equals the amount of L it received by selling C.
2. The amounts of L used by the outlet to buy A and B are in the ratio 5:3.
3. The amounts of L the outlet received from the sales of A and B are in the ratio 5:9.
4. The outlet received 88000 units of L by selling A during the day.
5. The outlet started the day with some amount of L, 2500 units of A, 4800 units of B, and 48000 units of C.
6. The outlet ended the day with some amount of L, 3300 units of A, 4800 units of B,and 51000 units of C.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 89

What was the base exchange rate of currency B with respect to currency L on that day?

Explanation

Comprehension

The base exchange rate of a currency X with respect to a currency Y is the number of units of currency Y which is equivalent in value to one unit of currency X. Currency exchange outlets buy currency at buying exchange rates that are lower than base exchange rates, and sell currency at selling exchange rates that are higher than base exchange rates.


A currency exchange outlet uses the local currency L to buy and sell three international currencies A, B, and C, but does not exchange one international currency directly with another. The base exchange rates of A, B and C with respect to L are in the ratio 100:120:1. The buying exchange rates of each of A, B, and C with respect to L are 5% below the corresponding base exchange rates, and their selling exchange rates are 10% above their corresponding base exchange rates.

The following facts are known about the outlet on a particular day:
1. The amount of L used by the outlet to buy C equals the amount of L it received by selling C.
2. The amounts of L used by the outlet to buy A and B are in the ratio 5:3.
3. The amounts of L the outlet received from the sales of A and B are in the ratio 5:9.
4. The outlet received 88000 units of L by selling A during the day.
5. The outlet started the day with some amount of L, 2500 units of A, 4800 units of B, and 48000 units of C.
6. The outlet ended the day with some amount of L, 3300 units of A, 4800 units of B,and 51000 units of C.

CAT/2018.2(DILR)

Question. 90

What was the buying exchange rate of currency C with respect to currency L on that day?

Comprehension

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.

The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:

Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 91

If the underlying principle is to be satisfied in such a way that the journey between any two cities can be performed using only direct (non-stop) flights, then the minimum number of direct flights to be scheduled is:

Comprehension

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.

The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:

Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 92

Suppose three of the ten cities are to be developed as hubs. A hub is a city which is connected with every other city by direct flights each way, both in the morning as well as in the evening. The only direct flights which will be scheduled are originating and/or terminating in one of the hubs. Then the minimum number of direct flights that need to be scheduled so that the underlying principle of the airline to serve all the ten cities is met without visiting more than one hub during one trip is:

Comprehension

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.

The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:

Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 93

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:

1. Both cities are in G1
2. Between A and any city in G2
3. Between B and any city in G3
4. Between C and any city in G4

Then the minimum number of direct flights that satisfies the underlying principle of the airline is:

Explanation

Comprehension

A new airlines company is planning to start operations in a country. The company has identified ten different cities which they plan to connect through their network to start with. The flight duration between any pair of cities will be less than one hour. To start operations, the company has to decide on a daily schedule.

The underlying principle that they are working on is the following:

Any person staying in any of these 10 cities should be able to make a trip to any other city in the morning and should be able to return by the evening of the same day

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 94

Suppose the 10 cities are divided into 4 distinct groups G1, G2, G3, G4 having 3, 3, 2 and 2 cities respectively and that G1 consists of cities named A, B and C. Further, suppose that direct flights are allowed only between two cities satisfying one of the following:

1. Both cities are in G1
2. Between A and any city in G2
3. Between B and any city in G3
4. Between C and any city in G4

However, due to operational difficulties at A, it was later decided that the only flights that would operate at A would be those to and from B. Cities in G2 would have to be assigned to G3 or to G4.
What would be the maximum reduction in the number of direct flights as compared to the situation before the operational difficulties arose? 

 
 

Explanation

Comprehension

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.

The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 95

How many cars would be asked to take the route A-N-B, that is Akala-Nanur-Bakala route, by the police department?

Explanation

Comprehension

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.

The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 96

If all the cars follow the police order, what is the difference in travel time (in minutes) between a car which takes the route A-N-B and a car that takes the route A-M-B?

Comprehension

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.

The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 97

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.
How many cars would the police department order to take the A-M-N-B route so that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order while the other cars follow the order? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.

Explanation

Comprehension

Four cars need to travel from Akala (A) to Bakala (B). Two routes are available, one via Mamur (M) and the other via Nanur (N). The roads from A to M, and from N to B, are both short and narrow. In each case, one car takes 6 minutes to cover the distance, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 3 minutes because of congestion. (For example, if only two cars drive from A to M, each car takes 9 minutes.) On the road from A to N, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. On the road from M to B, one car takes 20 minutes, and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 0.9 minute.

The police department orders each car to take a particular route in such a manner that it is not possible for any car to reduce its travel time by not following the order, while the other cars are following the order.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 98

A new one-way road is built from M to N. Each car now has three possible routes to travel from A to B: A-M-B, A-N-B and A-M-N-B. On the road from M to N, one car takes 7 minutes and each additional car increases the travel time per car by 1 minute. Assume that any car taking the A-M-N-B route travels the A-M portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-M-B route, and the N-B portion at the same time as other cars taking the A-N-B route.
If all the cars follow the police order, what is the minimum travel time (in minutes) from A to B? (Assume that the police department would never order all the cars to take the same route.2

Comprehension

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.

For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:
1.No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
3.The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
4.Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 99

What best can be concluded about the number of candidates sitting for the separate test for BIE who were at or above the 90th percentile overall in CET?

Comprehension

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.

For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:
1.No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
3.The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
4.Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 100

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, what is the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and at or above the 80th percentile in both P and M in CET?

Explanation

Comprehension

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.

For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:
1.No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
3.The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
4.Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 101

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also at or above the 80th percentile in all three sections in CET is actually a multiple of 5, then how many candidates were shortlisted for the AET for AIE? 

Explanation

Comprehension

Applicants for the doctoral programmes of Ambi Institute of Engineering (AIE) and Bambi Institute of Engineering (BIE) have to appear for a Common Entrance Test (CET). The test has three sections: Physics (P), Chemistry (C), and Maths (M). Among those appearing for CET, those at or above the 80th percentile in at least two sections, and at or above the 90th percentile overall, are selected for Advanced Entrance Test (AET) conducted by AIE. AET is used by AIE for final selection.

For the 200 candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall based on CET, the following are known about their performance in CET:
1.No one is below the 80th percentile in all 3 sections.
2.150 are at or above the 80th percentile in exactly two sections.
3.The number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in P is the same as the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in C. The same is the number of candidates at or above the 80th percentile only in M.
4.Number of candidates below 80th percentile in P: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in C: Number of candidates below 80th percentile in M = 4:2:1.

BIE uses a different process for selection. If any candidate is appearing in the AET by AIE, BIE considers their AET score for final selection provided the candidate is at or above the 80th percentile in P. Any other candidate at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, but who is not eligible for the AET, is required to appear in a separate test to be conducted by BIE for being considered for final selection. Altogether, there are 400 candidates this year who are at or above the 80th percentile in P.

CAT/2017.1(DILR)

Question. 102

If the number of candidates who are at or above the 90th percentile overall and also are at or above the 80th percentile in P in CET, is more than 100, how many candidates had to sit for the separate test for BIE?

Comprehension

An old woman had the following assets:

(a) Rs. 70 lakh in bank deposits
(b) 1 house worth Rs. 50 lakh
(c) 3 flats, each worth Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Certain number of gold coins , each worth Rs. 1 lakh

She wanted to distribute her assets among her three children; Neeta, Seeta and Geeta. The house, any of the flats or any of the coins were not to be split. That is, the house went entirely to one child; a flat went to one child and similarly, a gold coin went to one child.

Among the three, Neeta received the least amount in bank deposits, while Geeta received the highest. The value of the assets was distributed equally among the children, as were the gold coins.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 103

How much did Seeta receive in bank deposits (in lakhs of rupees)?

Comprehension

An old woman had the following assets:

(a) Rs. 70 lakh in bank deposits
(b) 1 house worth Rs. 50 lakh
(c) 3 flats, each worth Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Certain number of gold coins , each worth Rs. 1 lakh

She wanted to distribute her assets among her three children; Neeta, Seeta and Geeta. The house, any of the flats or any of the coins were not to be split. That is, the house went entirely to one child; a flat went to one child and similarly, a gold coin went to one child.

Among the three, Neeta received the least amount in bank deposits, while Geeta received the highest. The value of the assets was distributed equally among the children, as were the gold coins.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 104

How many flats did Neeta receive? 

Explanation

Comprehension

An old woman had the following assets:

(a) Rs. 70 lakh in bank deposits
(b) 1 house worth Rs. 50 lakh
(c) 3 flats, each worth Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Certain number of gold coins , each worth Rs. 1 lakh

She wanted to distribute her assets among her three children; Neeta, Seeta and Geeta. The house, any of the flats or any of the coins were not to be split. That is, the house went entirely to one child; a flat went to one child and similarly, a gold coin went to one child.

Among the three, Neeta received the least amount in bank deposits, while Geeta received the highest. The value of the assets was distributed equally among the children, as were the gold coins.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 105

The value of the assets distributed among Neeta, Seeta and Geeta was in the ratio of 1:2:3, while the gold coins were distributed among them in the ratio of 2:3:4. One child got all three flats and she did not get the house. One child, other than Geeta, got Rs. 30 lakh in bank deposits. How many gold coins did the old woman have?

Comprehension

An old woman had the following assets:

(a) Rs. 70 lakh in bank deposits
(b) 1 house worth Rs. 50 lakh
(c) 3 flats, each worth Rs. 30 lakh
(d) Certain number of gold coins , each worth Rs. 1 lakh

She wanted to distribute her assets among her three children; Neeta, Seeta and Geeta. The house, any of the flats or any of the coins were not to be split. That is, the house went entirely to one child; a flat went to one child and similarly, a gold coin went to one child.

Among the three, Neeta received the least amount in bank deposits, while Geeta received the highest. The value of the assets was distributed equally among the children, as were the gold coins.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 106

The value of the assets distributed among Neeta, Seeta and Geeta was in the ratio of 1:2:3, while the gold coins were distributed among them in the ratio of 2:3:4. One child got all three flats and she did not get the house. One child, other than Geeta, got Rs. 30 lakh in bank deposits. how much did Seeta get in bank deposits (in lakhs of rupees)?

Explanation

Comprehension

In an 8 X 8 chessboard a queen placed anywhere can attack another piece if the piece is present in the same row, or in the same column or in any diagonal position in any possible 4 directions, provided there is no other piece in between in the path from the queen to that piece. The columns are labelled a to h (left to right) and the rows are numbered 1 to 8 (bottom to top). The position of a piece is given by the combination of column and row labels. For example, position c5 means that the piece is in cth column and 5th row.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 107

If the queen is at c5, and the other pieces at positions c2, gl, g3, g5 and a3, how many are under attack by the queen? There are no other pieces on the board.

Comprehension

In an 8 X 8 chessboard a queen placed anywhere can attack another piece if the piece is present in the same row, or in the same column or in any diagonal position in any possible 4 directions, provided there is no other piece in between in the path from the queen to that piece. The columns are labelled a to h (left to right) and the rows are numbered 1 to 8 (bottom to top). The position of a piece is given by the combination of column and row labels. For example, position c5 means that the piece is in cth column and 5th row.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 108

If the other pieces are only at positions al, a3, b4, d7, h7 and h8, then which of the following positions of the queen results in the maximum number of pieces being under attack?

Comprehension

In an 8 X 8 chessboard a queen placed anywhere can attack another piece if the piece is present in the same row, or in the same column or in any diagonal position in any possible 4 directions, provided there is no other piece in between in the path from the queen to that piece. The columns are labelled a to h (left to right) and the rows are numbered 1 to 8 (bottom to top). The position of a piece is given by the combination of column and row labels. For example, position c5 means that the piece is in cth column and 5th row.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 109

If the other pieces are only at positions al, a3, b4, d7, h7 and h8, then from how many positions the queen cannot attack any of the pieces?

Comprehension

In an 8 X 8 chessboard a queen placed anywhere can attack another piece if the piece is present in the same row, or in the same column or in any diagonal position in any possible 4 directions, provided there is no other piece in between in the path from the queen to that piece. The columns are labelled a to h (left to right) and the rows are numbered 1 to 8 (bottom to top). The position of a piece is given by the combination of column and row labels. For example, position c5 means that the piece is in cth column and 5th row.

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 110

Suppose the queen is the only piece on the board and it is at position d5. In how many positions can another piece be placed on the board such that it is safe from attack from the queen?

Comprehension

Eight friends: Ajit, Byomkesh, Gargi, Jayanta, Kikira, Manik, Prodosh and Tapesh are going to Delhi from Kolkata by a flight operated by Cheap Air. In the flight, sitting is arranged in 30 rows, numbered 1 to 30, each consisting of 6 seats, marked by letters A to F from left to right, respectively. Seats A to C are to the left of the aisle (the passage running from the front of the aircraft to the back), and seats D to F are to the right of the aisle. Seats A and F are by the windows and referred to as Window seats, C and D are by the aisle and are referred to as Aisle seats while B and E are referred to as Middle seats. Seats marked by consecutive letters are called consecutive seats (or seats next to each other). A seat number is a combination of the row number, followed by the letter indicating the position in the row; e.g., 1A is the left window seat in the first row, while 12E is the right middle seat in the 12th row.

Cheap Air charges Rs. 1000 extra for any seats in Rows 1, 12 and 13 as those have extra legroom. For Rows 2-10, it charges Rs. 300 extra for Window seats and Rs. 500 extra for Aisle seats. For Rows 11 and 14 to 20, it charges Rs. 200 extra for Window seats and Rs. 400 extra for Aisle seats. All other seats are available at no extra charge.

The following are known:
1. The eight friends were seated in six different rows.
2. They occupied 3 Window seats, 4 Aisle seats and 1 Middle seat.
3. Seven of them had to pay extra amounts, totaling to Rs. 4600, for their choices of seat. One of them did not pay any additional amount for his/her choice of seat.
4. Jayanta, Ajit and Byomkesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but all of them paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero.
5. Gargi was sitting next to Kikira, and Manik was sitting next to Jayanta.
6. Prodosh and Tapesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but they paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 111

In which row was Manik sitting?

Comprehension

Eight friends: Ajit, Byomkesh, Gargi, Jayanta, Kikira, Manik, Prodosh and Tapesh are going to Delhi from Kolkata by a flight operated by Cheap Air. In the flight, sitting is arranged in 30 rows, numbered 1 to 30, each consisting of 6 seats, marked by letters A to F from left to right, respectively. Seats A to C are to the left of the aisle (the passage running from the front of the aircraft to the back), and seats D to F are to the right of the aisle. Seats A and F are by the windows and referred to as Window seats, C and D are by the aisle and are referred to as Aisle seats while B and E are referred to as Middle seats. Seats marked by consecutive letters are called consecutive seats (or seats next to each other). A seat number is a combination of the row number, followed by the letter indicating the position in the row; e.g., 1A is the left window seat in the first row, while 12E is the right middle seat in the 12th row.

Cheap Air charges Rs. 1000 extra for any seats in Rows 1, 12 and 13 as those have extra legroom. For Rows 2-10, it charges Rs. 300 extra for Window seats and Rs. 500 extra for Aisle seats. For Rows 11 and 14 to 20, it charges Rs. 200 extra for Window seats and Rs. 400 extra for Aisle seats. All other seats are available at no extra charge.

The following are known:
1. The eight friends were seated in six different rows.
2. They occupied 3 Window seats, 4 Aisle seats and 1 Middle seat.
3. Seven of them had to pay extra amounts, totaling to Rs. 4600, for their choices of seat. One of them did not pay any additional amount for his/her choice of seat.
4. Jayanta, Ajit and Byomkesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but all of them paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero.
5. Gargi was sitting next to Kikira, and Manik was sitting next to Jayanta.
6. Prodosh and Tapesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but they paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 112

How much extra did Jayanta pay for his choice of seat?

Comprehension

Eight friends: Ajit, Byomkesh, Gargi, Jayanta, Kikira, Manik, Prodosh and Tapesh are going to Delhi from Kolkata by a flight operated by Cheap Air. In the flight, sitting is arranged in 30 rows, numbered 1 to 30, each consisting of 6 seats, marked by letters A to F from left to right, respectively. Seats A to C are to the left of the aisle (the passage running from the front of the aircraft to the back), and seats D to F are to the right of the aisle. Seats A and F are by the windows and referred to as Window seats, C and D are by the aisle and are referred to as Aisle seats while B and E are referred to as Middle seats. Seats marked by consecutive letters are called consecutive seats (or seats next to each other). A seat number is a combination of the row number, followed by the letter indicating the position in the row; e.g., 1A is the left window seat in the first row, while 12E is the right middle seat in the 12th row.

Cheap Air charges Rs. 1000 extra for any seats in Rows 1, 12 and 13 as those have extra legroom. For Rows 2-10, it charges Rs. 300 extra for Window seats and Rs. 500 extra for Aisle seats. For Rows 11 and 14 to 20, it charges Rs. 200 extra for Window seats and Rs. 400 extra for Aisle seats. All other seats are available at no extra charge.

The following are known:
1. The eight friends were seated in six different rows.
2. They occupied 3 Window seats, 4 Aisle seats and 1 Middle seat.
3. Seven of them had to pay extra amounts, totaling to Rs. 4600, for their choices of seat. One of them did not pay any additional amount for his/her choice of seat.
4. Jayanta, Ajit and Byomkesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but all of them paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero.
5. Gargi was sitting next to Kikira, and Manik was sitting next to Jayanta.
6. Prodosh and Tapesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but they paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 113

How much extra did Gargi pay for her choice of seat?

Comprehension

Eight friends: Ajit, Byomkesh, Gargi, Jayanta, Kikira, Manik, Prodosh and Tapesh are going to Delhi from Kolkata by a flight operated by Cheap Air. In the flight, sitting is arranged in 30 rows, numbered 1 to 30, each consisting of 6 seats, marked by letters A to F from left to right, respectively. Seats A to C are to the left of the aisle (the passage running from the front of the aircraft to the back), and seats D to F are to the right of the aisle. Seats A and F are by the windows and referred to as Window seats, C and D are by the aisle and are referred to as Aisle seats while B and E are referred to as Middle seats. Seats marked by consecutive letters are called consecutive seats (or seats next to each other). A seat number is a combination of the row number, followed by the letter indicating the position in the row; e.g., 1A is the left window seat in the first row, while 12E is the right middle seat in the 12th row.

Cheap Air charges Rs. 1000 extra for any seats in Rows 1, 12 and 13 as those have extra legroom. For Rows 2-10, it charges Rs. 300 extra for Window seats and Rs. 500 extra for Aisle seats. For Rows 11 and 14 to 20, it charges Rs. 200 extra for Window seats and Rs. 400 extra for Aisle seats. All other seats are available at no extra charge.

The following are known:
1. The eight friends were seated in six different rows.
2. They occupied 3 Window seats, 4 Aisle seats and 1 Middle seat.
3. Seven of them had to pay extra amounts, totaling to Rs. 4600, for their choices of seat. One of them did not pay any additional amount for his/her choice of seat.
4. Jayanta, Ajit and Byomkesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but all of them paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero.
5. Gargi was sitting next to Kikira, and Manik was sitting next to Jayanta.
6. Prodosh and Tapesh were sitting in seats marked by the same letter, in consecutive rows in increasing order of row numbers; but they paid different amounts for their choices of seat. One of these amounts may be zero

CAT/2017.2(DILR)

Question. 114

Who among the following did not pay any extra amount for his/her choice of seat?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.

(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.

(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The houses are of different heights.

(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.

(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.

(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.

(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.

(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.

(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 115

Which is the second tallest house?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.

(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.

(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The houses are of different heights.

(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.

(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.

(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.

(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.

(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.

(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 116

What is the colour of the house diagonally opposite to the Yellow coloured house?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

(i) There are three houses on each side of the road.

(ii) These six houses are labeled as P, Q, R, S, T and U.

(iii) The houses are of different colours, namely, Red, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow and White.

(iv) The houses are of different heights.

(v) T, the tallest house, is exactly opposite to the Red coloured house.

(vi) The shortest house is exactly opposite to the Green coloured house.

(vii) U, the Orange coloured house, is located between P and S.

(viii) R, the Yellow coloured house, is exactly opposite to P.

(ix) Q, the Green coloured house, is exactly opposite to U.

(x) P, the White coloured house, is taller than R, but shorter than S and Q.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 117

What is the colour of the tallest house?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 118

Which one of the following statement is always true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 119

On a day of fluctuating market prices, the share price of XYZ Ltd. ends with a gain, i.e., it is higher at the close of the day compared to the opening value. Which trader got the maximum return on that day?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 120

On a “boom” day the share price of XYZ Ltd. keeps rising throughout the day and peaks at the close of the day. Which trader got the minimum return on that day?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 121

One day, two other traders, Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares of XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am, 11 am and 12 noon, and selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm. Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy of buying shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the shares for all the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the close of the day the following was observed:

(i) Abdul lost money in the transactions.

(ii) Both Dane and Emily made profits.

(iii) There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.

(iv) Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price.

 

Share price was at its highest at

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Abdul, Bikram and Chetan are three professional traders who trade in shares of a company XYZ Ltd. Abdul follows the strategy of buying at the opening of the day at 10 am and selling the whole lot at the close of the day at 3 pm. Bikram follows the strategy of buying at hourly intervals: 10 am, 11 am, 12 noon, 1 pm and 2 pm, and selling the whole lot at the close of the day. Further, he buys an equal number of shares in each purchase. Chetan follows a similar pattern as Bikram but his strategy is somewhat different. Chetan’s total investment amount is divided equally among his purchases. The profit or loss made by each investor is the difference between the sale value at the close of the day less the investment in purchase. The “return” for each investor is defined as the ratio of the profit or loss to the investment amount expressed as a percentage.

CAT/2008(DILR)

Question. 122

One day, two other traders, Dane and Emily joined Abdul, Bikram and Chetan for trading in the shares of XYZ Ltd. Dane followed a strategy of buying equal numbers of shares at 10 am, 11 am and 12 noon, and selling the same numbers at 1 pm, 2 pm and 3 pm. Emily, on the other hand, followed the strategy of buying shares using all her money at 10 am and selling all of them at 12 noon and again buying the shares for all the money at 1 pm and again selling all of them at the close of the day at 3 pm. At the close of the day the following was observed:

(i) Abdul lost money in the transactions.

(ii) Both Dane and Emily made profits.

(iii) There was an increase in share price during the closing hour compared to the price at 2 pm.

(iv) Share price at 12 noon was lower than the opening price.

 

Which of the following is necessarily false?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 123

If the government wants to ensure that the traffic at S gets evenly distributed along streets from S to A, from S to B, and from S to D, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 124

If the government wants to ensure that no traffic flows on the street from D to T, while equal amount of traffic flows through junctions A and C, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is: 

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 125

If the government wants to ensure that all motorists travelling from S to T pay the same amount (fuel costs and toll combined) regardless of the route they choose and the street from B to C is under repairs (and hence unusable), then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 126

If the government wants to ensure that all routes from S to T get the same amount of traffic, then a feasible set of toll charged (in rupees) at junctions A, B, C, and D respectively to achieve this goal is:

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

A significant amount of traffic flows from point S to point T in the one-way street network shown below. Points A, B, C, and D are junctions in the network, and the arrows mark the direction of traffic flow. The fuel cost in rupees for travelling along a street is indicated by the number adjacent to the arrow representing the street.

Motorists travelling from point S to point T would obviously take the route for which the total cost of travelling is the minimum. If two or more routes have the same least travel cost, then motorists are indifferent between them. Hence, the traffic gets evenly distributed among all the least cost routes.

The government can control the flow of traffic only by levying appropriate toll at each junction. For example, if a motorist takes the route S-A-T (using junction A alone), then the total cost of travel would be Rs 14 (i.e., Rs 9 + Rs 5) plus the toll charged at junction A.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 127

The government wants to devise a toll policy such that the total cost to the commuters per trip is minimized. The policy should also ensure that not more than 70 per cent of the total traffic passes through junction B. The cost incurred by the commuter travelling from point S to point T under this policy will be:

Comprehension

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/ her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

1.  On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

2.  At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

3.  On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

4.  No other paper was written during the conference

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 128

The Erdös number of C at the end of the conference was:

Comprehension

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/ her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

1.  On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

2.  At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

3.  On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

4.  No other paper was written during the conference

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 129

The Erdös number of E at the beginning of the conference was

Comprehension

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/ her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

1.  On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

2.  At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

3.  On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

4.  No other paper was written during the conference

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 130

How many participants had the same Erdös number at the beginning of the conference?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/ her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

1.  On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

2.  At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

3.  On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

4.  No other paper was written during the conference

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 131

The person having the largest Erdös number at the end of the conference must have had Erdös number (at that time):

Comprehension

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Mathematicians are assigned a number called Erdös number (named after the famous mathematician, Paul Erdös). Only Paul Erdös himself has an Erdös number of zero. Any mathematician who has written a research paper with Erdös has an Erdös number of 1. For other mathematicians, the calculation of his/ her Erdös number is illustrated below:

Suppose that a mathematician X has co-authored papers with several other mathematicians. From among them, mathematician Y has the smallest Erdös number. Let the Erdös number of Y be y. Then X has an Erdös number of y+1 . Hence any mathematician with no co-authorship chain connected to Erdös has an Erdös number of infinity.

In a seven day long mini-conference organized in memory of Paul Erdös, a close group of eight mathematicians, call them A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, discussed some research problems. At the beginning of the conference, A was the only participant who had an infinite Erdös number. Nobody had an Erdös number less than that of F.

1.  On the third day of the conference F co-authored a paper jointly with A and C. This reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight mathematicians to 3. The Erdös numbers of B, D, E, G and H remained unchanged with the writing of this paper. Further, no other co-authorship among any three members would have reduced the average Erdös number of the group of eight to as low as 3.

2.  At the end of the third day, five members of this group had identical Erdös numbers while the other three had Erdös numbers distinct from each other.

3.  On the fifth day, E co-authored a paper with F which reduced the group's average Erdös number by 0.5. The Erdös numbers of the remaining six were unchanged with the writing of this paper.

4.  No other paper was written during the conference

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 132

How many participants in the conference did not change their Erdös number during the conference?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

1. A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

2. A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.

6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 133

Who can be a member of a team of size 5?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

1. A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

2. A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.

6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 134

Who cannot be a member of a team of size 3?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

1. A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

2. A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.

6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 135

What could be the size of a team that includes K?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

1. A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

2. A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.

6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 136

In how many ways a team can be constituted so that the team includes N?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

K, L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, U and W are the only ten members in a department. There is a proposal to form a team from within the members of the department, subject to the following conditions :

1. A team must include exactly one among P, R and S.

2. A team must include either M or Q, but not both.

3. If a team includes K, then it must also include L, and vice versa.

4. If a team includes one among S, U and W, then it must also include the other two.

5. L and N cannot be members of the same team.

6. L and U cannot be members of the same team.

The size of a team is defined as the number of members in the team.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 137

What would be the size of the largest possible team?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

1.  Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

2.  If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 138

If Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS on three consecutive days, while Michael sold 10 shares only once during the five days, what was the price of MCS at the end of day 3?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

1.  Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

2.  If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 139

If Chetan ended up with Rs 1300 more cash than Michael at the end of day 5, what was the price of MCS share at the end of day 4?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

1.  Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

2.  If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 140

If Michael ended up with 20 more shares than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the price of the share at the end of day 3?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

1.  Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

2.  If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 141

If Michael ended up with Rs 100 less cash than Chetan at the end of day 5, what was the difference in the number of shares possessed by Michael and Chetan (at the end of day 5)?

Comprehension

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below:

Two traders, Chetan and Michael, were involved in the buying and selling of MCS shares over five trading days. At the beginning of the first day, the MCS share was priced at Rs 100, while at the end of the fifth day it was priced at Rs 110. At the end of each day, the MCS share price either went up by Rs 10, or else, it came down by Rs 10. Both Chetan and Michael took buying and selling decisions at the end of each trading day. The beginning price of MCS share on a given day was the same as the ending price of the previous day. Chetan and Michael started with the same number of shares and amount of cash, and had enough of both. Below are some additional facts about how Chetan and Michael traded over the five trading days.

1.  Each day if the price went up, Chetan sold 10 shares of MCS at the closing price. On the other hand, each day if the price went down, he bought 10 shares at the closing price.

2.  If on any day, the closing price was above Rs 110, then Michael sold 10 shares of MCS, while if it was below Rs 90, he bought 10 shares, all at the closing price.

CAT/2006(DILR)

Question. 142

What could have been the maximum possible increase in combined cash balance of Chetan and Michael at the end of the fifth day?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs l00. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 143

What is the minimum average return Venkat would have earned during the year?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs l00. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 144

If Venkat earned a 35% return on average during the year, then which of these statements would necessarily be true?

I. Company A belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company D did not announce extraordinarily good results

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs l00. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 145

If Venkat earned a 38.75% return on average during the year, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Company C belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

II. Company D belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

III. Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. Company B did not announce extraordinarily good results.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Venkat, a stockbroker, invested a part of his money in the stock of four companies — A, B, C and D. Each of these companies belonged to different industries, viz., Cement, Information Technology (IT), Auto, and Steel, in no particular order. At the-time of investment, the price of each stock was Rs l00. Venkat purchased only one stock of each of these companies. He was expecting returns of 20%, 10%, 30% and 40% from the stock of companies A, B, C and D, respectively. Returns are defined as the change in the value of the stock after one year, expressed as a percentage of the initial value. During the year, two of these companies announced extraordinarily good results. One of these two companies belonged to the Cement or the IT industry, while the other one belonged to either the Steel or the Auto industry. As a result, the returns on the stocks of these two companies were higher than the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Cement or the IT industry with extraordinarily good results, the returns were twice that of the initially expected returns. For the company belonging to the Steel or[ the Auto industry, the returns on announcement of extraordinarily good results were only one and a half times that of the initially expected returns. For the remaining two companies.

Which do not announce extraordinarily good results, the returns realized during the year were the same as initially expected.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 146

If Company C belonged to the Cement or the IT industry and did announce extraordinarily good results, then which of these statement(s) would necessarily be true?

I. Venkat earned not more than 36.25% return on average.

II. Venkat earned not less than 33.75% return on average.

III. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company A announced extraordinarily good results.

IV. If Venkat earned 33.75% return on average, Company B belonged either to Auto or to Steel Industry.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that :

• In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

• Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 147

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Honest Ltd. has the highest share in the UP market.

Statement 2: Aggressive Ltd. has the highest share in the Bihar market.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that :

• In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

• Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 148

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1 : Aggressive Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from MP.

Statement 2 : Honest Ltd.’s lowest revenues are from Bihar.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that :

• In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

• Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 149

What can be said regarding the following two statements?

Statement 1: Profitable Ltd. has the lowest share in MP market.

Statement 2 : Honest Ltd.’s total revenue is more than Profitable Ltd.

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The table below presents the revenue (in million rupees) of four firms in three states. These firms, Honest Ltd., Aggressive Ltd., Truthful Ltd. and Profitable Ltd. are disguised in the table as A,B,C and D, in no particular order.

Further, it is known that :

• In the state of MP, Truthful Ltd. has the highest market share.

• Aggressive Ltd.’s aggregate revenue differs from Honest Ltd.’s by Rs. 5 million.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 150

If Profitable Ltd.’s lowest revenue is from UP, then which of the following is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 of first round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 151

If Elena Dementieva and Serena Williams lose in the second round, while Justine Henin and Nadia Petrova make it to the semifinals, then who would play Maria Sharapova in the quarterfinals, in the event Sharapova reaches quarterfinals?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 of first round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 152

If the top eight seeds make it to the quarterfinals, then who, amongst the players listed below, would definitely not play against Maria Sharapova in the final, in case Sharapova reaches the final?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 of first round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 153

If there are no upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the first round, and only match Nos. 6, 7, and 8 of the second round result in upsets, then who would meet Lindsay Davenport in quarter finals, in case Davenport reaches quarter finals?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In the table below is the listing of players, seeded from highest (#1) to lowest (#32), who are due to play in an Association of Tennis Players (ATP) tournament for women. This tournament has four knockout rounds before the final, i.e., first round, second round, quarterfinals, and semi-finals. In the first round, the highest seeded player plays the lowest seeded player (seed # 32) which is designated match No.1 of first round; the 2nd seeded player plays the 31 st seeded player which is designated match No.2 of the first round, and so on. Thus, for instance, match No. 16 of first round is to be played between 16th seeded player and the 17th seeded player. In the second round, the winner of match No.1 of first round plays the winner of match No. 16 of first round and is designated match No.1 of second round. Similarly, the winner of match No.2 of first round plays the winner of match No. 15 of first round, and is designated match No.2 of second round. Thus, for instance, match No.8 of the second round is to be played between the winner of match No.8 of first round and the winner of match No.9 of first round. The same pattern is followed for later rounds as well.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 154

If, in the first round, all even numbered matches (and none of the odd numbered ones) result in upsets, and there are no upsets in the second round, then who could be the lowest seeded player facing Maria Sharapova in semi-finals?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

• A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone. is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 155

Based on the information given above, the minimum number of volunteers involved in both FR and TR projects, but not in the ER project is :

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

• A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone. is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 156

Which of the following additional information would enable to find the exact number of volunteers involved in various projects?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

• A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone. is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 157

After some time, the volunteers who were involved in all the three projects were asked to withdraw from one project. As a result, one of the volunteers opted out of the TR project, and one opted out of the ER project, while the remaining ones involved in all the three projects opted out of the FR project. Which of the following statements, then, necessarily follows?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Help Distress (HD) is an NGO involved in providing assistance to people suffering from natural disasters. Currently, it has 37 volunteers. They are involved in three projects: Tsunami Relief (TR) in Tamil Nadu, Flood Relief (FR) in Maharashtra, and Earthquake Relief (ER) in Gujarat. Each volunteer working with Help Distress has to be involved in at least one relief work project.

• A Maximum number of volunteers are involved in the FR project. Among them, the number of volunteers involved in FR project alone. is equal to the volunteers having additional involvement in the ER project.

• The number of volunteers involved in the ER project alone is double the number of volunteers involved in all the three projects.

• 17 volunteers are involved in the TR project. ,

• The number of volunteers involved in the TR project alone is one less than the number of volunteers involved in ER project alone.

• Ten volunteers involved in the TR project are also involved in at least one more project.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 158

After the withdrawal of volunteers, as indicated in Question 85, some new volunteers joined the NGO. Each one of them was allotted only one project in a manner such that, the number of volunteers working in one project alone for each of the three projects became identical. At that point, it was also found that the number of volunteers involved in FR and ER projects was the same as the number of volunteers involved in TR and ER projects. Which of the projects now has the highest number of volunteers?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

• In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

• A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

• A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting.

• As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

It is also known that :

• All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

• Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.

• The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.

• 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 159

What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

• In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

• A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

• A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting.

• As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

It is also known that :

• All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

• Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.

• The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.

• 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 160

What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round I?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

• In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

• A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

• A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting.

• As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

It is also known that :

• All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

• Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.

• The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.

• 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 161

What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in round 3, voted for London?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York, and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

• In any round of voting; the city receiving the lowest number of votes in that round gets eliminated. The survivor after the last round of voting gets to host the event.

• A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence, a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a given round if both the cities(s) he voted for in earlier rounds are out of contention in that round of voting.)

• A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city(s) he represents is in contention in that round of voting.

• As long as the member is eligible,(s)he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received the maximum and minimum votes in different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

It is also known that :

• All those who voted for London and Paris in round 1, continued to vote for the same cities in subsequent rounds as long as these cities were in contention. 75% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Beijing in round 2 as well.

• Those who voted for New York in round 1, voted either for Beijing or Paris in round 2.

• The difference in votes cast for the two contending cities in the last round was 1.

• 50% of those who voted for Beijing in round 1, voted for Paris in round 3.

CAT/2005(DILR)

Question. 162

Which of the following statements must be true?

(a) IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.

(b) IOC member from Beijing voted for London in round 3

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the information given below.

In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the question in group A together carry at least 60% of the total marks.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 163

If group B contains 23 questions, then how many questions are there in group C?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the information given below.

In an examination, there are 100 questions divided into three groups A, B and C such that each group contains at least one question. Each question in group A carries 1 mark, each question in group B carries 2 marks and each question in group C carries 3 marks. It is known that the question in group A together carry at least 60% of the total marks.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 164

If group C contains 8 questions and group B carries at least 20% of the total marks, which of the following best describes the number of questions in group B?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsman got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his higest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.

 

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 165

Which of the players had the best M-index from the tournament?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsman got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his higest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.

 

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 166

Among the players mentioned, who can have the lowest R-index from the tournament?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsman got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his higest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.

 

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 167

For how many Indian players is it possible to calculate the exact M-index?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Coach John sat with the score cards of Indian players from the 3 games in a one-day cricket tournament where the same set of players played for India and all the major batsman got out. John summarized the batting performance through three diagrams, one for each game. In each diagram, the three outer triangles communicate the number of runs scored by the three top scorers from India, where K, R, S, V, and Y represent Kaif, Rahul, Saurav, Virender, and Yuvraj respectively. The middle triangle in each diagram denotes the percentage of total score that was scored by the top three Indian scorers in that game. No two players score the same number of runs in the same game. John also calculated two batting indices for each player based on his scores in the tournament; the R-index of a batsman is the difference between his higest and lowest scores in the 3 games while the M-index is the middle number, if his scores are arranged in a non-increasing order.

 

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 168

How many players among those listed definitely scored less than Yuvraj in the tournament?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given..

I. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.

II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.

III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the America would have had twice many experts as each of the other continents.

V. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 169

Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given..

I. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.

II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.

III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the America would have had twice many experts as each of the other continents.

V. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 170

Which of the following combinations is NOT possible?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given..

I. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.

II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.

III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the America would have had twice many experts as each of the other continents.

V. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 171

If Ramos is the lone America expert in population studies, which of the following is NOT true about the numbers of experts in the conference from the four continents?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

Twenty one participants from four continents (Africa, Americas, Australasia, and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields, labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given..

I. The number of labour experts in the camp was exactly half the number of experts in each of the three other categories.

II. Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category.

III. None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

IV. If there had been one less Australasian expert, then the America would have had twice many experts as each of the other continents.

V. Mike and Alfanso are leading experts of population studies who attended the conference. They are from Australasia.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 172

Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?

(i) At least one

(ii) Atmost two

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The year was 2006, All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches

(A) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.

(B) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.

(C) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 173

Which one of the following statement is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The year was 2006, All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches

(A) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.

(B) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.

(C) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 174

Which one of the following statements is true about matches played in the first two rounds?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The year was 2006, All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches

(A) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.

(B) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.

(C) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 175

If Pakistan qualified as one of the two teams from Pool A, which was the other team that qualified?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below

The year was 2006, All six teams in Pool A of World Cup hockey, play each other exactly once. Each win earns a team three points, a draw earns one point and a loss earns zero points. The two teams with the highest points qualify for the semifinals. In case of a tie, the team with the highest goal difference (Goal For - Goals Against) qualifies. In the opening match, Spain lost to Germany. After the second round (after each team played two matches), the pool table looked as shown below.

In the third round, Spain played Pakistan, Argentina played Germany, and New Zealand played South Africa. All the third round matches were drawn. The following are some results from the fourth and fifth round matches

(A) Spain won both the fourth and fifth round matches.

(B) Both Argentina and Germany won their fifth round matches by 3 goals to 0.

(C) Pakistan won both the fourth and fifth round matches by 1 goal to 0.

CAT/2004(DILR)

Question. 176

Which team finished at the top of the pool after five rounds of matches?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

New Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Buddhi. The sum of the number of projects handled by Gyani and Budhi individually is equal to the number of projects in which Medha is involved. All three consultants are involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works with Medha in 14 projects. Buddhi has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani, and 3 projects with Gyani but without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 177

What is the number of projects in which Gyani alone is involved?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

New Age Consultants have three consultants Gyani, Medha and Buddhi. The sum of the number of projects handled by Gyani and Budhi individually is equal to the number of projects in which Medha is involved. All three consultants are involved together in 6 projects. Gyani works with Medha in 14 projects. Buddhi has 2 projects with Medha but without Gyani, and 3 projects with Gyani but without Medha. The total number of projects for New Age Consultants is one less than twice the number of projects in which more than one consultant is involved.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 178

What is the number of projects in which Medha alone is involved?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot?

(i) Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish

(ii) Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets

(iii) Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj

(iv) Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj

(v) Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 179

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Some children were taking free throws at the basketball court in school during lunch break. Below are some facts about how many baskets these children shot?

(i) Ganesh shot 8 baskets less than Ashish

(ii) Dhanraj and Ramesh together shot 37 baskets

(iii) Jugraj shot 8 baskets more than Dhanraj

(iv) Ashish shot 5 baskets more than Dhanraj

(v) Ashish and Ganesh together shot 40 baskets

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 180

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven versity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 181

Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven versity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 182

Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven versity basketball players (A, B, C, D, E, F and G) are to be honoured at a special luncheon. The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have the luncheon early and so must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player’s trophy and so must be in the centre to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore must be seated as far apart as possible.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 183

Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professsor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 184

How many members of the group are males ?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professsor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 185

What is E’s profession?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

A, B, C, D, E and F are a group of friends. There are two housewives, one professor, one engineer, one accountant and one lawyer in the group. The lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. No woman in the group is either an engineer or an accountant. C, the accountant, is married to F, who is a professsor. A is married to a housewife. E is not a housewife.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 186

Which of the following is one of the married couples?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Rang Barsey paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints, RBPC buys Red, Yellow, White, Orange and Pink paints. Orange paint can be also produced by mixing Red and Yellow paints in equal proportions. Similarly, Pink paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of Red and White paints. Among other paints , RBPC sells Cream paint, (formed by mixing White and Yellow in the ratio 70:30) Avocado paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and Pink paint ) and Washedorange paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and White paint.) The following table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints .

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 187

The cheapest way to manufacture avocado paint would cost

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Rang Barsey paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints, RBPC buys Red, Yellow, White, Orange and Pink paints. Orange paint can be also produced by mixing Red and Yellow paints in equal proportions. Similarly, Pink paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of Red and White paints. Among other paints , RBPC sells Cream paint, (formed by mixing White and Yellow in the ratio 70:30) Avocado paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and Pink paint ) and Washedorange paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and White paint.) The following table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints .

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 188

Washedorange can be manufactured by mixing

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Rang Barsey paint Company (RBPC) is in the business of manufacturing paints, RBPC buys Red, Yellow, White, Orange and Pink paints. Orange paint can be also produced by mixing Red and Yellow paints in equal proportions. Similarly, Pink paint can also be produced by mixing equal amounts of Red and White paints. Among other paints , RBPC sells Cream paint, (formed by mixing White and Yellow in the ratio 70:30) Avocado paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and Pink paint ) and Washedorange paint (formed by mixing equal amounts of Orange and White paint.) The following table provides the price at which RBPC buys paints .

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 189

Assume that Avocado, Cream and Washedorange each sells for the same price . Which of the three is the most profitable to manufacture?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power , Defence, Telecom and Finance, F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 190

If A gets Home and C gets Finance, then which is not a valid assignment for defence and Telecom?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The Head of a newly formed government desires to appoint five of the six elected members A, B, C, D, E and F to portfolios of Home, Power , Defence, Telecom and Finance, F does not want any portfolio if D gets one of the five. C wants either Home or finance or no portfolio. B says that if D gets either Power or Telecom then she must get the other one. E insists on a portfolio if A gets one.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 191

Which is a valid assignment?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five friends meet every morning at Sree sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idils and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8 while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.

(i) The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis

(ii) Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas, eat without chutney

(iii) Sandeep does not take any chutney

(iv) The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further he is not Mukesh

(v) Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada

(vi) Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does

(vii) Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 192

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five friends meet every morning at Sree sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idils and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8 while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.

(i) The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis

(ii) Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas, eat without chutney

(iii) Sandeep does not take any chutney

(iv) The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further he is not Mukesh

(v) Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada

(vi) Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does

(vii) Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 193

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five friends meet every morning at Sree sagar restaurant for an idli-vada breakfast. Each consumes a different number of idils and vadas. The number of idlis consumed are 1, 4, 5, 6 and 8 while the number of vadas consumed are 0, 1, 2, 4, and 6. Below are some more facts about who eats what and how much.

(i) The number of vadas eaten by Ignesh is three times the number of vadas consumed by the person who eats four idlis

(ii) Three persons, including the one who eats four vadas, eat without chutney

(iii) Sandeep does not take any chutney

(iv) The one who eats one idli a day does not eat any vadas or chutney. Further he is not Mukesh

(v) Daljit eats idli with chutney and also eats vada

(vi) Mukesh, who does not take chutney, eats half as many vadas as the person who eats twice as many idlis as he does

(vii) Bimal eats two more idlis than Ignesh, but Ignesh eats two more vadas than Bimal

 

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 194

Which one of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five women decided to go shopping to M.G.Road, Banglore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order : (1) Archana, (2) Chellamma, (3) Dhenuka, (4) Helen, and (5) Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.

(i) The woman who spent Rs 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs 1193

(ii) One woman spent Rs 1340 and she was not Dhenuka

(iii) One woman spent Rs 1378 more than Chellamma

(iv) One woman spent Rs 2517 and she was not Archana

(v) Helen spent more than Dhenuka

(vi) Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 195

What was the amount spent by Helen?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five women decided to go shopping to M.G.Road, Banglore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order : (1) Archana, (2) Chellamma, (3) Dhenuka, (4) Helen, and (5) Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.

(i) The woman who spent Rs 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs 1193

(ii) One woman spent Rs 1340 and she was not Dhenuka

(iii) One woman spent Rs 1378 more than Chellamma

(iv) One woman spent Rs 2517 and she was not Archana

(v) Helen spent more than Dhenuka

(vi) Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 196

Which of the following amount was spent by one of them?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Five women decided to go shopping to M.G.Road, Banglore. They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following order : (1) Archana, (2) Chellamma, (3) Dhenuka, (4) Helen, and (5) Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs 1000. Below are some additional facts about how much they spent during their shopping spree.

(i) The woman who spent Rs 2234 arrived before the lady who spent Rs 1193

(ii) One woman spent Rs 1340 and she was not Dhenuka

(iii) One woman spent Rs 1378 more than Chellamma

(iv) One woman spent Rs 2517 and she was not Archana

(v) Helen spent more than Dhenuka

(vi) Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the smallest

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 197

The woman who spent Rs 1193 is

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 198

If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 199

Whose office faces A’s office?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 200

Who is/are F’s neighbour(s)?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 201

D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on th right. To whose room was he trying to direct that person?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

Two days (Thursday and Friday) are left for campaigning before a major election, and the city administration has received requests from five political parties for taking out their processions along the following routes.

Congress :         A-C-D-E               BJP :A-B-D-E              SP : A-B-C-E

BSP :                 B-C-E                   CPM :                        A-C-D         

Street B-D cannot be used for a political procession on Thursday due to a religious procession. The district administration has a policy of not allowing more than one procession to pass along the same street on the same day. However, the administration must allow all parties to take out their processions during these two days.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 202

Congress procession can be allowed

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it

Two days (Thursday and Friday) are left for campaigning before a major election, and the city administration has received requests from five political parties for taking out their processions along the following routes.

Congress :         A-C-D-E               BJP :A-B-D-E              SP : A-B-C-E

BSP :                 B-C-E                   CPM :                        A-C-D         

Street B-D cannot be used for a political procession on Thursday due to a religious procession. The district administration has a policy of not allowing more than one procession to pass along the same street on the same day. However, the administration must allow all parties to take out their processions during these two days.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 203

Which of the following is NOT true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.

JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me

JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting here. There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was

SM :I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS, and DG in the lounge that day

SS : I left immediately after SM left

DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there

PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there

VR : No comments

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 204

Based on the responses, which of the two, JP or DG, entered the lounge first?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.

JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me

JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting here. There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was

SM :I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS, and DG in the lounge that day

SS : I left immediately after SM left

DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there

PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there

VR : No comments

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 205

Who was sitting with JC when JP entered the lounge?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.

JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me

JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting here. There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was

SM :I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS, and DG in the lounge that day

SS : I left immediately after SM left

DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there

PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there

VR : No comments

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 206

How many of the seven members did VR meet on Friday in the lounge?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Seven faculty members at a management institute frequent a lounge for strong coffee and stimulating conversation. On being asked about their visit to the lounge last Friday we got the following responses.

JC : I came in first, and the next two persons to enter were SS and SM. When I left the lounge, JP and VR were present in the lounge. DG left with me

JP : When I entered the lounge with VR, JC was sitting here. There was someone else, but I cannot remember who it was

SM :I went to the lounge for a short while, and met JC, SS, and DG in the lounge that day

SS : I left immediately after SM left

DG : I met JC, SS, SM, JP and VR during my first visit to the lounge. I went back to my office with JC. When I went to the lounge the second time, JP and VR were there

PK : I had some urgent work, so I did not sit in the lounge that day, but just collected my coffee and left. JP and DG were the only people in the lounge while I was there

VR : No comments

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 207

Who were the last two faculty members to leave the lounge?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 208

Which one among the following must have two sources?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 209

How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer - keys before C could make his answer-key?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 210

Both G and H were sources to

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 211

Which of the following statements is true?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people. The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All the others create their answer - key in the following manner. They obtain the answer key from one or two people who already possess the same. The people are called his/her “sources”. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the answer-keys obtained form both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source’s answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.

The paper contained 200 questions; so the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 212

Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?

(I) A, D and G

(II) E and H

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage.

Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family

Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

Anil is not the husband of Joya

Anil and Raj are fathers.

Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school.

Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 213

Which woman arrived third?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage.

Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family

Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

Anil is not the husband of Joya

Anil and Raj are fathers.

Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school.

Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 214

Name the correct pair of husband and wife?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage.

Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family

Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

Anil is not the husband of Joya

Anil and Raj are fathers.

Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school.

Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 215

Of the following pairs, whose daughters go to the same school?

Comprehension

Directions for Questions: Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have at least one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage.

Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family

Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

Anil is not the husband of Joya

Anil and Raj are fathers.

Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school.

Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

CAT/2003(DILR)

Question. 216

Whose family is known to have more than one kid for certain?

CAT/2002(DILR)

Question. 217

Four students (Ashish, Dhanraj, Felix and Sameer) sat for the Common Entrance Exam for Management (CEEM). One student got admission offers from three National Institutes of Management (NIM), another in two NIMs, the third in one NIM, while the fourth got none. Below are some of the facts about who got admission offers from how many NIMs and what is their educational background

(i) The one who is an engineer didn’t get as many admissions as Ashish

(ii) The one who got offer for admissions in two NIMs isn’t Dhanraj nor is he a chartered accountant

(iii) Sameer is an economist

(iv) Dhanraj isn’t an engineer and received more admission offers than Ashish

(v) The medical doctor got the most number of admission offers

Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

CAT/2002(DILR)

Question. 218

Five boys went to a store to buy sweets. One boy had Rs 40. Another boy had Rs30. Two other boys had Rs20 each. The remaining boy had Rs10. Below are some more facts about the initial and final cash positions

(i) Alam started with more than Jugraj

(ii) Sandeep spent Rs 1.50 more than Daljeet

(iii) Ganesh started with more money than just only one other person

(iv) Daljeet started with 2/3 of what Sandeep started with

(v) Alam spent the most, but did not end with the least

(vi) Jugraj spent the least and ended with more than Alam or Daljeet

(vii) Ganesh spent Rs 3.50.

(viii) Alam spent 10 times more than what Ganesh d